Question: What are the disadvantages of using a menstrual cup?

Answer: Some types are disposable, but most are reusable. It holds more. It can be tough to find the right fit. Cups come in different sizes depending on your age, flow, and whether you've had a child. Still, finding the perfect fit can be a challenge, more so if you have a tilted uterus or low cervix. It can take some trial and error, and you could have leaks in the meantime. Removal can get messy -- or embarrassing. Even if you find it easy to insert the cup, removing it can be tricky. In a sit or squat, you need to use your pelvic floor muscles to push the cup down, then reach up and grab the stem. Pinch the base to break the seal and angle the cup slightly back to keep it from spilling. And if you're in public, keep in mind you'll need to wash out the cup in the restroom sink. ( As an alternative, one manufacturer suggests bringing a bottle of water with you into the stall and rinsing it out, then wiping clean with toilet paper.) It could interfere with an IUD. Some manufacturers don't recommend using a menstrual cup if you have an intrauterine device ( IUD) inserted, as there's a chance the cup could pull on the string or dislodge it. But a 2012 study found no evidence of this. Still, it's a good idea to talk to your doctor before combining the two.


Question: What is LDL apheresis for treating heterozygous familial hypercholesterolemia (HeFH)?

Answer: LDL apheresis is a safe and effective way to remove all the LDL from your blood by filtering it. You'll be asked to relax in a hospital bed while your blood is slowly drawn through a machine and back into your body. Some people feel light-headed, flushed, or nauseous while it's going on. To have the most benefit, you'll likely have to repeat the procedure every few weeks to continue removing LDL from your blood.


Question: What triggers shy bladder?

Answer: Many people say a few key things keep them from being able to go in public: Lack of privacy: Public restrooms rarely offer it.


Question: What is a shy bladder?

Answer: That's because being near other people causes your sphincter muscles to lock up. Those muscles control the flow of urine from your bladder. Once they freeze up, you simply can't pee. It can happen in a public restroom, a bathroom in someone else's home, and even in your own place if other folks are nearby. Your doctor may call it by its official name, paruresis. Talk to your doctor before you try any type of treatment just to be sure nothing's wrong with your urinary system.


Question: What questions should I ask my doctor during my first prenatal visit?

Answer: What is my due date? Do I need prenatal vitamins? Are the symptoms I'm experiencing normal? Is it normal not to experience certain symptoms? Is there anything I can take for morning sickness? What are the specific recommendations regarding weight gain, exercise and nutrition? What activities, foods, substances (for example, medicine, caffeine and alternative sweeteners like Equal) should I avoid? Can I have sex while I am pregnant?


Question: Why is prenatal care important?

Answer: Regular appointments with your health care provider throughout your pregnancy are important to ensure the health of you and your baby. In addition to medical care, prenatal care includes education on pregnancy and childbirth, plus counseling and support.


Question: What will happen during my first prenatal appointment with my doctor?

Answer: The purpose of the prenatal visit is to: Determine your due date Find out your health history Explore the medical history of family members Determine if you have any pregnancy risk factors based on your age, health and/or personal and family history You will be asked about previous pregnancies and surgeries, medical conditions and exposure to any contagious diseases.


Question: How does chronic illness affect sleep?

Answer: The pain and fatigue that people with chronic illness experience has a large impact on their daily lives, including sleep. Because of their illness, these patients often have trouble sleeping at night, and are sleepy during the day. This is especially the case for people who have neurological (nervous system) diseases such as Parkinson's and Alzheimer's. Insomnia and other sleep disorders can make the person's pain and quality of life worse. In addition, some drugs used to treat chronic illnesses can cause sleep problems. People who have a chronic illness may also suffer from depression or anxiety, which can also cause sleep problems.


Question: What chronic illness can cause sleep problems?

Answer: Sleep problems can be due to a chronic illness, such as diabetes, arthritis, HIV/ AIDS, lupus, Parkinson's disease, Alzheimer's disease, and multiple sclerosis.


Question: What kinds of brain exercises should I do?

Answer: But the main idea seems to be keeping your brain active and challenged. You could start with something as simple as eating with the hand you usually don't use from time to time. You can also: Learn something new, such as a second language or a musical instrument. Play board games with your kids or grandkids. Or get your friends together for a weekly game of cards. Mix it up by trying new games. The extra bonus of activities like these? Social connections also help your brain. Work on crossword, number, or other kinds of puzzles. Play online memory games or video games. Read, write, or sign up for local adult education classes.


Question: What can delay the symptoms of dementia?

Answer: Neither education nor brain exercises are a sure way to prevent Alzheimer's. But they may help delay symptoms and keep the mind working better for longer.


Question: How can brain exercises help delay memory loss or dementia?

Answer: So games, puzzles, and other types of brain training may help slow memory loss and other mental problems. People who regularly challenge their minds may spend a shorter part of their lives in a state of decline, even if they do get Alzheimer's.


Question: How can how I sit make chewing and swallowing easier if I have Parkinson's disease?

Answer: The way you sit, the foods you eat, and how you eat can affect your ability to swallow. To use your posture to make chewing and swallowing easier, you can: Sit upright at a 90-degree angle. Tilt your head slightly forward. Stay seated or standing for 15-20 minutes after you eat a meal.


Question: How should I change how I eat to make swallowing easier?

Answer: When you eat: Lessen distractions. Stay focused on eating and drinking. Don't talk with food in your mouth. Eat slowly. Cut your food into small pieces, and chew it thoroughly. Don't try to eat more than 1/2 teaspoon at a time. Keep in mind that you may need to swallow two or three times per bite or sip. If food or liquid catches in your throat, cough gently or clear your throat, and swallow again before you take a breath. Do it over, if you need to. Concentrate on swallowing frequently.


Question: How can I make eating easier if chewing is difficult and tiring?

Answer: If chewing is difficult or tiring: Cut back on or stop eating foods you have to chew, and eat more soft things. Puree your food in a blender. If thin liquids make you cough, thicken them with a liquid thickener. ( Your speech pathologist can recommend one.) You can also use thicker liquids instead of thin ones, like nectars instead of juices and cream soups instead of plain broths.


Question: How can you take medicine for Parkinson's disease if swallowing is difficult?

Answer: But crushing some drugs, like Sinemet CR, can affect how the drugs work. Ask your pharmacist which meds you can crush and which you can get as a liquid.


Question: What can cause you to drool if you have Parkinson's disease?

Answer: That'll help you swallow more often. If it's happening to you, talk with your doctor. She can suggest therapies or medicines that can help make things better.


Question: How are Parkinson's disease and swallowing related?

Answer: As a result, chewing and managing solid foods can be difficult. If you have Parkinson's disease and have trouble swallowing, talk with your doctor.


Question: What changes occur in people with keratoconus?

Answer: The changes in the shape of the cornea can happen quickly or may occur over several years. The changes can result in blurred vision, glare and halos at night, and the streaking of lights. The changes can stop at any time, or they can continue for decades. There is no way to predict how it will progress. In most people who have keratoconus, both eyes are eventually affected, although not always to the same extent. It usually develops in one eye first and then later in the other eye.


Question: How is keratoconus diagnosed?

Answer: These include: A sudden change of vision in one eye Double vision when looking with just one eye Objects both near and far looking distorted Bright lights looking like they have halos around them Lights streaking Seeing double or triple ghost images Being uncomfortable driving due to blurry vision, especially at night To be sure you have keratoconus, your doctor needs to measure the shape of the cornea. There are several different ways this can be done. The most common way is called âcorneal topography,' which snaps a photo of the cornea and analyzes it in seconds. Children of parents with keratoconus should have a cornea topography done every year starting at age 10 to monitor the cornea.


Question: What can occur with severe keratoconus?

Answer: With severe keratoconus, the stretched collagen fibers can lead to severe scarring. If the back of the cornea tears, it can swell and take many months for the swelling to go away. This often causes a large corneal scar.


Question: Do you need surgery to treat keratoconus?

Answer: If eyeglasses and contact lenses no longer provide stable and comfortable good quality vision, a cornea transplant can be performed. This involves removing the center of the cornea and replacing it with a donor cornea that is stitched into place.


Question: How does keratoconus change your vision?

Answer: Keratoconus changes vision in two ways: As the cornea changes from a ball shape to a cone shape, the smooth surface becomes distorted. This is called irregular astigmatism. As the front of the cornea expands, vision becomes more nearsighted. That is only up close objects can be seen clearly. Anything too far away will look like a blur.


Question: Can I get laser vision correction surgery if I have keratoconus?

Answer: Laser vision correction surgery -- LASIK - is dangerous for people with keratoconus or a strong family history of keratoconus, because it can further weaken the cornea and make vision worse. Anyone with even a small degree of keratoconus should not have LASIK surgery.


Question: Can you inherit keratoconus?

Answer: Keratoconus is genetic, so it can run in families. If you have it and have children, it's a good idea to have their eyes checked for it starting at age 10. The condition progresses more rapidly in people with certain medical problems, including certain allergic conditions. It could be related to chronic eye rubbing.


Question: When should you get a cornea transplant for keratoconus?

Answer: If eyeglasses and contact lenses no longer provide stable and comfortable good quality vision, a cornea transplant can be performed. This involves removing the center of the cornea and replacing it with a donor cornea that is stitched into place.


Question: Who is more likely to get keratoconus?

Answer: Keratoconus is genetic, so it can run in families. If you have it and have children, it's a good idea to have their eyes checked for it starting at age 10. The condition progresses more rapidly in people with certain medical problems, including certain allergic conditions. It could be related to chronic eye rubbing.


Question: How can a doctor detect keratoconus?

Answer: Keratoconus is caused by a decrease in protective antioxidants in the cornea. It usually develops in one eye first and then later in the other eye.


Question: What happens to the cornea during keratoconus?

Answer: The changes can result in blurred vision, glare and halos at night, and the streaking of lights. The changes can stop at any time, or they can continue for decades. There is no way to predict how it will progress. In most people who have keratoconus, both eyes are eventually affected, although not always to the same extent. It usually develops in one eye first and then later in the other eye. Keratoconus changes vision in two ways: As the cornea changes from a ball shape to a cone shape, the smooth surface becomes distorted.


Question: What causes premature and inhibited ejaculation?

Answer: In some cases, premature and inhibited ejaculation are caused by a lack of attraction for a partner, past traumatic events, and even psychological factors, including a strict religious background that causes the person to view sex as sinful. Premature ejaculation, the most common form of sexual dysfunction in men, often is due to nervousness over how well he will perform during sex. Certain drugs, including some antidepressants, may affect ejaculation.


Question: What are most common sexual problems in men?

Answer: The most common sexual problems in men are ejaculation disorders, erectile dysfunction, and inhibited sexual desire.


Question: What are the types of ejaculation disorders in men?

Answer: Inhibited or retarded ejaculation -- This is when ejaculation is slow to occur. Retrograde ejaculation -- This occurs when, at orgasm, the ejaculate is forced back into the bladder rather than through the urethra and out the end of the penis. In other men, retrograde ejaculation occurs after operations on the bladder neck or prostate, or after certain abdominal operations.


Question: How can you tell if you have heartburn or a heart attack?

Answer: Chest pain is one of the most common reasons to go to the emergency room. While many of these people are having a heart attack, some folks may have severe heartburn. Often, the pain from a heart attack and a severe heartburn episode is so hard to tell apart that doctors need sophisticated tests to figure out what's going on. To complicate things even more, heartburn and heart attacks have many of the same symptoms and happen in similar types of people, such as those who are older or overweight.


Question: How is heartburn diagnosed?

Answer: But they may ask you to take special tests to find out how severe the problem is or to keep an eye on your treatment.


Question: What is the future goal for treating metastatic (stage IV) breast cancer?

Answer: As medical therapies improve, experts hope someday to treat this form of cancer like diabetes and other ongoing, "chronic" conditions, which doctors can manage for several years or even decades.


Question: What are my treatment options if I have metastatic (stage IV) breast cancer?

Answer: The options your doctor recommends for you will depend on: Where the cancer is in your body The kind of cancer cells you have Your symptoms Breast cancer treatments you've had in the past Your health and age Your preferences It's your decision.


Question: If I have metastatic (stage IV) breast cancer, what are some ways to feel better in body and mind?

Answer: These mean the same thing from the standpoint of where the cancer is, and we mean that it has left the breast and the lymph nodes in the underarm and found its way to another part of the body. The treatment options that are available that are the most effective depend on the type of the breast cancer. If the time comes when there aren't other options or the side effects are too much, let your doctor know how you feel and that you want your treatment to focus on comfort. See how many of these are helpful to you now: Eat well and stay active. This may help you handle treatment better. Exercise relaxes muscles and keeps you strong. Easy stretches and yoga can make you feel less tired and stressed and help you sleep better. Lean on loved ones. Your friends and family can support you when you need it the most. Share a meal or watch a movie together to help remind you that life is more than just about cancer. Get emotional support. Consider joining a support group for people with metastatic breast cancer. Talking to others who are in the same situation, whether it's online or in person, can help you feel more connected. A religious leader you know and trust, a spiritual counselor, or your small group can help you process what's happening and stay connected with your community and core beliefs. Be present. Mindfulness meditation uses deep breathing and relaxation to lessen stress. You can learn it in a class or simply take a few minutes each day to quietly focus on something, such as your breath or a calming word or phrase, letting other thoughts and feelings come and go. It may help you stay in the moment. Paint a picture. Dance to your favorite tunes. Drink in that beautiful sunrise. If it puts a smile on your face, it's worth doing.


Question: Do I have a choice in the treatment option for my metastatic (stage IV) breast cancer?

Answer: Doctors will offer choices tailored for your condition. Learn as much as you can about your options, and find out about possible side effects before you decide. Talk to your doctor about it if an important occasion is coming up, like a wedding or a milestone birthday.


Question: What will happen if my treatment no longer works for my metastatic (stage IV) breast cancer?

Answer: With stage IV breast cancer, the goal of treatment is to slow the disease's growth for as long as possible, with the least amount of side effects or pain. Learn as much as you can about your options, and find out about possible side effects before you decide. They work differently from chemotherapy in that they only attack the cancer and have different side effects. Sometimes cancer can no longer be seen on scans. When it doesn't, you'll move on to another one. Lean on loved ones.


Question: How does medication help treat dissociative amnesia?

Answer: Medication: There is no medication to treat the dissociative disorders themselves. However, a person with a dissociative disorder who also suffers from depression or anxiety might sometimes benefit from treatment with a medication such as an antidepressant or anti-anxiety drug.


Question: Is dissociative amnesia different from simple amnesia?

Answer: Dissociative amnesia is not the same as simple amnesia, which involves a loss of information from memory, usually as the result of disease or injury to the brain. With dissociative amnesia, the memories still exist but are deeply buried within the person's mind and cannot be recalled. However, the memories might resurface on their own or after being triggered by something in the person's surroundings.


Question: When does dissociative amnesia occur?

Answer: Dissociative amnesia occurs when a person blocks out certain information, usually associated with a stressful or traumatic event, leaving him or her unable to remember important personal information. With this disorder, the degree of memory loss goes beyond normal forgetfulness and includes gaps in memory for long periods of time or of memories involving the traumatic event.


Question: How can you lower the risk of dissociative amnesia?

Answer: Although it may not be possible to prevent dissociative amnesia, it might be helpful to begin treatment in people as soon as they begin to have symptoms. Immediate intervention after a traumatic event or emotionally distressing experience can help to reduce the likelihood of dissociative disorders.


Question: What are the symptoms of dissociative amnesia?

Answer: The primary symptom of dissociative amnesia is the sudden inability to remember past experiences or personal information. Some people with this disorder also might appear confused and suffer from depression and/or anxiety.


Question: What is dissociative amnesia?

Answer: Dissociative amnesia is one of a group of conditions called dissociative disorders. There also might be a genetic link to the development of dissociative disorders, including dissociative amnesia, because people with these disorders sometimes have close relatives who have had similar conditions. If no physical illness is found, the person might be referred to a psychiatrist or psychologist, health care professionals who are specially trained to diagnose and treat mental illnesses. Treatment then aims to help the person safely express and process painful memories, develop new coping and life skills, restore functioning, and improve relationships.


Question: What causes dissociative amnesia?

Answer: Dissociative amnesia is not the same as simple amnesia, which involves a loss of information from memory, usually as the result of disease or injury to the brain. There also might be a genetic link to the development of dissociative disorders, including dissociative amnesia, because people with these disorders sometimes have close relatives who have had similar conditions.


Question: Who's most likely to get dissociative amnesia?

Answer: When one or more of these functions is disrupted, symptoms can result. Dissociative amnesia has been linked to overwhelming stress, which might be the result of traumatic events -- such as war, abuse, accidents, or disasters -- that the person has experienced or witnessed.


Question: What's the goal of treatment for dissociative amnesia?

Answer: These symptoms can interfere with a person's general functioning, including social and work activities, and relationships. The best treatment approach depends on the individual and the severity of his or her symptoms. The outlook for people with dissociative amnesia depends on several factors, including the person's life situation, the availability of support systems, and the individual's response to treatment.


Question: What is the outlook for people with dissociative amnesia?

Answer: With dissociative amnesia, the memories still exist but are deeply buried within the person's mind and cannot be recalled. The outlook for people with dissociative amnesia depends on several factors, including the person's life situation, the availability of support systems, and the individual's response to treatment. For most people with dissociative amnesia, memory returns with time, making the overall outlook very good.


Question: How big should my toothbrush be?

Answer: The best toothbrush head for you should allow you easy access to all surfaces of your teeth. For most adults, a toothbrush head a half-inch wide and one-inch tall will be the easiest to use and the most effective. Though there are larger toothbrush heads available, you may find that it is difficult to maneuver them to clean certain hard-to-reach areas, such as the sides and backs of your molars. The toothbrush should have a long enough handle so you can comfortably hold it in your hand.


Question: What are tips for picking bristles on a toothbrush?

Answer: For the vast majority of people, a soft-bristled toothbrush will be the most comfortable and safest choice. Depending on how vigorously you brush your teeth and the strength of your teeth, medium- and hard-bristled brushes could actually damage the gums, root surface, and protective tooth enamel. For even more tooth protection when you brush, be sure the bristles on the toothbrush you select have rounded tips.


Question: What is behavioral therapy to quit smoking?

Answer: This involves working with a counselor to find ways not to smoke. Together, you'll find your triggers (such as emotions or situations that make you want to smoke) and make a plan to get through the cravings.


Question: What if I start smoking again after quitting?

Answer: It's called a relapse, and a lot of people go through it before they kick the habit for good. It's also very normal in strong addictions like smoking. If it happens, try to smoke as little as possible until you're ready to quit again.


Question: How hard will it be to quit smoking?

Answer: Everyone is different, and how tough it will be for you depends on: How many cigarettes you smoke a day If your friends and family members smoke Why you smoke Focus on the benefits.


Question: What are combo treatments to help you quit smoking?

Answer: You might be more likely to quit for good if you use a mix of different methods. For example, using both a nicotine patch and gum may be better than a patch alone. Other helpful combinations include behavioral therapy and nicotine replacement therapy; prescription medication with a nicotine replacement therapy patch; and a nicotine replacement therapy patch and nicotine spray. The FDA hasn't approved using two types of nicotine replacement therapies at the same time, so be sure to talk with your doctor first to see if this is the right approach for you.


Question: How well does quitting smoking cold turkey work?

Answer: Only about 5% to 7% are able to quit on their own. Have a quit-smoking support group available.


Question: What is advance directive (living will)?

Answer: Advance Directive (living will): A document written in "good" health which informs your family and health care providers of your wishes for extended medical treatment in times of emergency.


Question: What is the definition of trans-myocardial revascularization?

Answer: Trans- Myocardial Revascularization ( TMR): A procedure used in people with severe heart disease who are not candidates for bypass surgery. In this procedure, an incision is made in the chest. The heart is exposed and small holes are drilled through the wall of the heart with a laser.


Question: What is the definition of diastolic pressure?

Answer: Diastolic Pressure: The pressure of the blood in the arteries when the heart is filling. It is the lower of two blood pressure measurements; for example, if the blood pressure is 120/80, then 80 is the diastolic pressure.


Question: What is the dipyridamole stress test?

Answer: Dipyridamole Stress Test: If you are unable to exercise on a treadmill or stationary bicycle for a stress test, a drug called dipyridamole ( Persantine) is used instead of exercise to test the heart's blood flow.


Question: What is ECMO (extra corporeal membrane oxygenation)?

Answer: ECMO( Extra corporeal Membrane Oxygenation): In people who are unable to provide oxygen for their own blood or enough blood circulation, they can be put on life support known as extra corporeal membrane oxygenation. The blood is withdrawn from a large vein in the body and passes through a pumping mechanism, and then through a device that puts oxygen into the blood and removes carbon dioxide from the blood. The blood is then returned to the body and circulated in such a way as to sustain life.


Question: What is the definition of radial artery?

Answer: Radial Artery: The radial artery is a blood vessel that carries oxygen-rich blood in the forearm. You can feel the pulse of the radial artery by feeling the inside of the wrist underneath the base of the thumb.


Question: What is the definition of Holter monitor?

Answer: Holter Monitor: A small recorder (monitor) that monitors for abnormal heartbeats. It is attached to electrodes on your chest. It records the heart's rhythm continuously for 24 to 48 hours. After the monitor is removed, the heart's beats are counted and analyzed by a technician with the aid of a computer. Your doctor can learn if you are having irregular heartbeats, what kind they are, how long they last, as well as what may cause them.


Question: What is the definition of idiopathic?

Answer: Idiopathic: When the cause of a disease or process is not known.


Question: What is the definition of coronary arteries?

Answer: Coronary Arteries: Network of blood vessels that branch off the aorta to supply the heart muscle with oxygen-rich blood. There are two main coronary arteries: the right and the left.


Question: What is the definition of flutter?

Answer: Flutter: One form of rapid heartbeat, often involving the top part of the heart, called the atria.


Question: What is the definition of cardiac rehabilitation?

Answer: Cardiac Rehabilitation: A structured program of education and activity guided toward lifestyle modification, increasing functional capabilities and peer support.


Question: What is the definition of mortality rate?

Answer: Mortality Rate: The percentage of deaths associated with a disease or medical treatment.


Question: What is the definition of hydrogenation?

Answer: Hydrogenation: A process used to harden unsaturated liquid vegetable oils into saturated fats.


Question: What is the definition of leaflets?

Answer: Leaflets: Thin pieces of tissue or flaps that make up a valve.


Question: What is the definition of exercise stress test?

Answer: Exercise Stress Test: A test used to provide information about how the heart responds to stress. It usually involves walking on a treadmill or pedaling a stationary bike at increasing levels of difficulty, while the electrocardiogram, heart rate, and blood pressure are monitored.


Question: What is the definition of hyperlipidemia?

Answer: Hyperlipidemia: High levels of fat in the blood, such as cholesterol and triglycerides.


Question: What is the definition of occlusion?

Answer: Occlusion: Blockage.


Question: What is the definition of Wolff Parkinson White syndrome?

Answer: Wolff Parkinson White Syndrome ( WPW): WPW is an abnormal conduction pathway that can sometimes cause an arrhythmia. People with WPW have more than one electrical conduction pathway in their heart (accessory pathways). These electrical impulses set up a short circuit causing the heart to beat rapidly and conduct impulses in both directions.


Question: What is the definition of silent ischemia?

Answer: Silent Ischemia: Inadequate supply of oxygen-rich blood to the heart that does not cause symptoms such as chest pain.


Question: What is the definition of subvalvular aortic stenosis?

Answer: Subvalvular Aortic Stenosis: A narrowing of the flow of blood below the aortic valve in the left ventricle. It is usually caused by a membrane or thickening in the muscle in this area.


Question: What is the definition of Sestamibi exercise stress test?

Answer: Sestamibi Exercise Stress Test ( Sestamibi stress test, stress perfusion scan, stress Sestamibi): A diagnostic study, which uses a small amount of radioactive tracer, injected into the body, and a special camera, which detects the radiation, released by the substance to produce a computer image of the heart. Combined with exercise, the study can help determine if there is adequate blood flow to the heart at rest, as compared with activity.


Question: What is ventricular septal defect?

Answer: Ventricular Septal Defect: The right and left ventricles lie next to each other in the heart. The septum is the membranous wall that separates them. A ventricular septal defect is a hole in the septum.


Question: What is the definition of syncope?

Answer: Stroke: A sudden loss of brain function due to decreased blood flow to an area of the brain.


Question: What is the definition of transesophageal echocardiogram?

Answer: Transesophageal Echocardiogram ( TEE): An invasive imaging procedure that creates a picture of the heart's movement, valves, and chambers using high frequency sound waves that come from a small transducer passed down your throat. TEE provides clear images of the heart's movement because the transducer is close to the heart and limits interference from air in the lungs.


Question: What is the definition of tachycardia?

Answer: A heart rate above 100 beats per minute.


Question: What is the definition of thrombus?

Answer: Thrombus: A blood clot.


Question: What is the definition of sodium?

Answer: Sodium (salt): A mineral found in most of the foods we eat. The largest source of dietary sodium comes from sodium chloride or table salt. Intake of sodium tends to increase the retention of water.


Question: What is the definition of risk factor (for heart disease)?

Answer: Risk Factor (for heart disease): Traits people have that are linked to the development and progression of coronary artery disease. There are modifiable risk factors -- related to lifestyle and may be changed or controlled -- and non-modifiable risk factors -- related to aging and genetics and cannot be changed.


Question: What is aortic valve repair?

Answer: Aortic Valve Repair: The aortic valve is the last valve in the heart through which the blood travels prior to circulating in the body. When this valve is leaking or too tight, a surgeon may be able to repair the valve rather than replace it.


Question: What is the definition of angioplasty?

Answer: Angioplasty: An invasive procedure, during which a specially designed balloon catheter with a small balloon tip is guided to the point of narrowing in the artery. Once in place, the balloon is inflated to compress the fatty matter into the artery wall and stretch the artery open to increase blood flow to the heart.


Question: What is the definition of balloon angioplasty?

Answer: Balloon Angioplasty ( Percutaneous Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty or PTCA): A procedure used to clean out clogged heart arteries. A specially designed balloon catheter with a small balloon tip is guided to the point of narrowing in the artery. Once in place, the balloon is inflated to compress the fatty matter into the artery wall and stretch the artery open to increase blood flow to the heart.


Question: What is the definition of hibernating myocardium?

Answer: Hibernating Myocardium: Hibernating myocardium is heart muscle that does not pump normally due to decreased blood flow, usually from a coronary artery blockage or heart attack. If normal blood flow is restored (for example, by angioplasty of a coronary blockage), then the myocardium may be able to return to normal function.


Question: What is the definition of diuretic?

Answer: Diuretic: A drug that enables the kidneys to rid the body of excess fluid. It may also be referred to as a "water pill."


Question: What is the definition of intravascular?

Answer: Intravascular: Inside a blood vessel.


Question: What is the definition of diabetes?

Answer: Diabetes: A condition in which the body does not produce or respond to insulin (a hormone produced by your body, which allows blood sugar or glucose into your body's cells for energy).


Question: What is the definition of coronary artery disease?

Answer: Coronary Artery Disease (atherosclerosis): A build-up of fatty material, also called plaques, in the wall of the coronary artery that causes narrowing of the artery.


Question: What is arterial grafting?

Answer: Arterial Grafting: In patients who require coronary artery bypass graft surgery, arteries from other parts of the body can be used to provide the bypass grafts. This is known as arterial grafting. The alternative is to use vein grafts for coronary bypass surgery.


Question: What is the definition of IHSS?

Answer: IHSS: Idiopathic Hypertrophic Subaortic Stenosis is another term used synonymously with hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy ( HOCM). It is an inherited disease of the heart that causes thickening of the heart muscle and other changes to the heart that significantly impair its function. Although the disease is rare, IHSS is the most common cause of sudden cardiac arrest in young people. The term that is most frequently used now is HOCM.


Question: What is the definition of prophylaxis?

Answer: Prophylaxis: The prevention of disease.


Question: What is the definition of arrhythmia?

Answer: Arrhythmia: An irregular heartbeat.


Question: What is the definition of off pump heart surgery?

Answer: Off Pump Heart Surgery: Heart surgery done without the use of the cardiopulmonary bypass machine.


Question: What is the definition of coronary spasm?

Answer: Coronary Spasm: Repeated contractions and dilations of the coronary arteries, causing a lack of blood supply to the heart muscle. It may occur at rest and can even occur in people without significant coronary artery disease.


Question: What is the definition of myomectomy?

Answer: Myomectomy: A surgical procedure to remove abnormally thickened heart muscle.


Question: What is the definition of obesity?

Answer: Obesity: Excess fat due to eating more calories than used. It is usually defined having a body mass index ( BMI -- see above) of 30 or higher.


Question: What is the definition of edema?

Answer: Edema: Swelling; the accumulation of fluids, usually in the hands, feet, or abdomen.


Question: What is the definition of dobutamine stress echocardiogram?

Answer: Dobutamine Stress Echocardiogram ( Dobutamine echo): A procedure that involves infusing a medication (dobutamine) through an intravenous ( IV) line while you are closely monitored. This drug stimulates your heart allowing evaluation of heart and valve function at rest and with exertion, when you are unable to exercise on a treadmill or stationary cycle. An echocardiogram is then performed repeatedly during a stress test to evaluate the pumping chambers of the heart.


Question: What is the definition of cardiopulmonary resuscitation, or CPR?

Answer: Cardiopulmonary Resusitation ( CPR): A technique designed to temporarily circulate oxygenated blood through the body of a person whose heart has stopped. It involves assessing the airway; if necessary breathing for the person; determining if the person is without a pulse; and if necessary, applying pressure to the chest to circulate blood.


Question: What is the definition of maze procedure?

Answer: Maze Procedure: A surgical treatment for chronic atrial fibrillation. The surgeon makes multiple incisions in the atrium to block the path of the atrial fibrillation rhythm, thus allowing the normal heartbeat to occur.


Question: What is a nuclear scan?

Answer: Nuclear Scan: Nuclear imaging is a method of producing images by detecting radiation from different parts of the body after the administration of a radioactive tracer material.


Question: What is the definition of angina?

Answer: Angina (also called angina pectoris): Discomfort or pressure, usually in the chest, caused by a temporarily inadequate blood supply to the heart muscle. Discomfort may also be felt in the neck, jaw, or arms.


Question: What is the definition of catheter?

Answer: Catheter: A slender, hollow, flexible tube.


Question: What is the definition of carbon dioxide?

Answer: Carbon Dioxide: A gas created during metabolism, when the cells use oxygen to burn fat and release energy. The lungs release carbon dioxide when you breathe out.


Question: What is the definition of angiogenesis?

Answer: Angiogenesis: The spontaneous or drug-induced growth of new blood vessels. The growth of these vessels may help to alleviate coronary artery disease by rerouting blood flow around clogged arteries.


Question: What is the definition of atrioventricular node?

Answer: Atrioventricular ( AV) Node: A group of special cells located near the center of the heart that helps to regulate the heart rhythm.


Question: What is the definition of myocardial biopsy (cardiac biopsy)?

Answer: Myocardial Biopsy ( Cardiac biopsy): An invasive procedure to obtain a small piece of heart muscle tissue for analysis.


Question: What is the definition of pulse rate?

Answer: Pulse Rate: The number of heartbeats per minute. The resting pulse rate for an average adult is between 60 and 80 beats per minute.


Question: What is the definition of intravascular ultrasound?

Answer: Intravascular Ultrasound ( IVUS): An invasive procedure, performed along with cardiac catheterization. A miniature sound probe (transducer) on the tip of a catheter is threaded through the coronary arteries and, using high-frequency sound waves, produces detailed images of the interior walls of the arteries.


Question: What is the definition of pericardium?

Answer: Pericardium: The sac that surrounds the heart.


Question: What is the definition of hypotension?

Answer: Hypotension: Low blood pressure.


Question: What is the definition of platelets?

Answer: The plaque builds up and narrows the artery Platelets: Components of blood that aid in clotting.


Question: What is the definition of head upright tilt test?

Answer: Head Upright Tilt Test ( HUT, tilt table test, head-up tilt test): A test used to determine the cause of fainting spells. The test involves being tilted at different angles for a period of time. Heart rhythm, blood pressure, and other measurements are evaluated with changes in position.


Question: What is the definition of carotid artery?

Answer: Carotid Artery: A vessel that supplies the brain with oxygenated blood.


Question: What is the definition of septum?

Answer: Septum: The muscular wall separating the right and left sides of the heart.


Question: What is the definition of pericardiocentesis (pericardial tap)?

Answer: Pericardiocentesis (pericardial tap): An invasive procedure that involves using a needle and catheter to remove fluid from the sac around the heart. The fluid may then be sent to a lab for tests to look for signs of infection or cancer.


Question: What is the definition of metabolic exercise stress test?

Answer: Metabolic Exercise Stress Test (also called metabolic stress test): A test used to measure the performance of the heart and lungs while they are under physical stress. The test involves walking on a treadmill or pedaling a stationary bike at increasing levels of difficulty, while being closely monitored.


Question: What is the definition of ventricular rupture?

Answer: Ventricular Rupture: An area of the muscular wall of the heart that weakens and ruptures, usually due to a heart attack. If this happens, then blood from within the heart can leak into the pericardium. This is a medical emergency and usually requires urgent surgery.


Question: What is the definition of mitral insufficiency?

Answer: Mitral Insufficiency: A condition where the mitral valve does not fully close during heart contraction, allowing blood from the left ventricle to leak back into the left atrium.


Question: What is the definition of tricuspid valve?

Answer: Tricuspid Valve: The tricuspid valve is the valve that separates the right atrium from the right ventricle and prevents blood from flowing back into the right atrium during contraction of the ventricle.


Question: What is the definition of hypertension?

Answer: Hypertension: High blood pressure.


Question: What is ablation?

Answer: Biopsy: Removal and analysis of a tissue sample.


Question: What is the definition of homocysteine?

Answer: Homocysteine: An amino acid. High levels of homocysteine are a risk factor for coronary artery disease.


Question: What is bundle branch block?

Answer: Bundle Branch Block: Normally, the electrical impulse travels down both the right and left bundle branches at the same speed and the ventricles contract at the same time. If there is a block in one of the branches, it's called a bundle branch block. A bundle branch block causes one ventricle to contract just after the other ventricle, reducing the overall efficiency of contraction.


Question: What is the definition of arteries?

Answer: Arteries: Blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart.


Question: What is the definition of bicuspid-valve?

Answer: Bicuspid Valve: A valve with two leaflets (cusps) instead of three.


Question: What is the definition of biopsy?

Answer: Biopsy: Removal and analysis of a tissue sample.


Question: What is the definition of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors?

Answer: Angiotensin- Converting Enzyme Inhibitors ( ACE inhibitors): A group of drugs used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure. ACE inhibitors block a specific enzyme ( ACE or angiotensin-converting enzyme) that retains salt in the kidney and can cause heart and blood pressure problems. ACE inhibitors have been shown to decrease the risk of dying from a heart attack or heart failure.


Question: What is the definition of antihypertensive?

Answer: Antihypertensive: A drug used to treat high blood pressure.


Question: What is the definition of calcium-channel blocker?

Answer: Calcium- Channel Blocker: A drug that reduces spasm of the blood vessels, lowers blood pressure, and controls angina; it acts by selectively blocking the uptake of calcium by the cells.


Question: What is the definition of blood pressure?

Answer: Blood Pressure: The force exerted in the arteries by blood as it circulates. It is divided into systolic (when the heart contracts) and diastolic (when the heart is filling) pressures.


Question: What is the definition of capillaries?

Answer: Capillaries: Tiny blood vessels connecting arteries to veins. These blood vessels carry oxygen and nutrients to individual cells throughout the body.


Question: What is the definition of premature ventricular contraction?

Answer: Premature Ventricular Contractions ( PVCs): An irregular heartbeat in which the lower chambers of the heart (the ventricles) beat before they are supposed to.


Question: What is the definition of patency rate?

Answer: Patency Rate: The likelihood that a vessel will remain open.


Question: What is the definition of atrial myxoma?

Answer: Atrial Myxoma: A myxoma is a benign tumor of the heart. It resides in the atrial chamber and causes symptoms when its growth produces a tumor so large it obstructs blood flow through the heart chambers. Treatment of atrial myxoma is surgical removal of the tumor.


Question: What is the definition of pericarditis?

Answer: Pericarditis: Pericarditis is an inflammation of the pericardium. The pericardium is the sac around the heart.


Question: What is the definition of intracardiac tumor?

Answer: Intracardiac Tumor: An intracardiac tumor can be any tumor of the heart, either malignant or benign. The most common tumor of the heart is a benign atrial myxoma.


Question: What is the definition of atherosclerosis?

Answer: Atherosclerosis ("hardening of the arteries"): The process whereby abnormal deposits of lipids, cholesterol, and plaque build up, leading to coronary artery disease and other cardiovascular problems.


Question: What is the definition of atria?

Answer: Atria: The upper chambers of the heart. ( Atrium refers to one chamber of the heart).


Question: What is the definition of annulus?

Answer: Annulus: A ring of tough fibrous tissue that is attached to and supports the leaflets of the heart valve.


Question: What is the definition of clubbing?

Answer: Clubbing: An abnormality where the ends of the fingers and toes enlarge and the nails curve; often it is related to an inadequate oxygen-rich blood supply, however it can be hereditary and completely normal.


Question: What is the definition of cholesterol?

Answer: Cholesterol: A fatty substance made by the body and found in some foods.


Question: What is the definition of bradycardia?

Answer: Bradycardia: A slow heart rate.


Question: What is the definition of cardiac catheterization?

Answer: Cardiac Catheterization: A heart procedure used to diagnose heart disease. During the procedure, a catheter (inserted into an artery in your arm or leg) is guided to your heart, contrast dye is injected, and X-rays of the coronary arteries, heart chambers, and valves are taken.


Question: What is the definition of atrial septal defect?

Answer: Atrial Septal Defect: An abnormal hole located in the walls between the two atria. Tiny defects called patent foramen ovale are present in up to 30% of people and are of no consequence except in unusual circumstances. Moderate size to larger size defects should be corrected and may require heart surgery, though there are now devices that can close the hole without open heart surgery.


Question: What is the definition of atrium?

Answer: Atrium: The top chamber of the heart. There are two atria -- the left and the right, divided by a muscular wall, called the septum. The atrium contracts before the ventricle to allow optimal filling of the ventricle.


Question: What is the definition of magnetic resonance imaging?

Answer: This test is used to help your doctor find out the cause of your rhythm disturbance and the best treatment for you. MRI uses large magnets and radio-frequency waves to produce pictures of the body's internal structures.


Question: What is the definition of antioxidant?

Answer: Antioxidant: Vitamins ( A, C, and E) that may help to limit the cellular damage caused by free radicals (which are released when tissue is being injured, such as during the progression of heart disease.) It is an inherited disease of the heart that causes thickening of the heart muscle and other changes to the heart that significantly impair its function.


Question: How can I prevent tendinitis?

Answer: Vary your exercises and gently stretch all the muscles and tendons you are planning to exercise. Include warm-up and cool-down exercises and stretches in your routine. As a general rule, a good warm-up is five minutes for every 30 minutes of planned exercise.


Question: How can ultrasound and whirlpool treatments help with treating tendinitis?

Answer: Ultrasound and whirlpool treatments are useful for relaxing muscles and tendons, improving circulation, and promoting healing.


Question: How will my doctor diagnose tendinitis?

Answer: Tendinitis, also called overuse tendinopathy, typically is diagnosed by a physical exam alone.


Question: What can treatment do for tendinitis?

Answer: The goals of treatment for overuse tendinopathy are to restore movement to the joint without pain and to maintain strength in surrounding muscles while giving the tissues time to heal.


Question: How can your physical therapist help with treating tendinitis?

Answer: A physical therapist can propose an exercise plan that rests the tendon while strengthening nearby muscle groups and maintaining overall muscle tone. Only gradually will you begin to exercise the tendon itself. Your program may also include "eccentric" exercises, in which you gradually strengthen the muscle while stretching, stopping at the first sign of pain. You may also work into easy stretching exercises, done several times a day.


Question: What is the first treatment for tendinitis?

Answer: As an immediate treatment for overuse tendinopathy, doctors and physical therapists often recommend the RICE program: rest, ice, compression, and elevation of the injured tendon. They may also suggest a short course of aspirin, ibuprofen, or other anti-inflammatory drugs to help inflammation and pain. Occasionally, your doctor may discuss injecting corticosteroids (a stronger anti-inflammatory drug) around the tendon for an acute injury, but these are not used in chronic overuse tendinopathy due to potential harmful effects of use.


Question: How expensive is biologic treatment for rheumatoid arthritis?

Answer: If your doctor prescribes a biologic to treat your RA and your insurance covers it, your portion of the payment can still sometimes run hundreds of dollars per month.


Question: Is it expensive to treat rheumatoid arthritis?

Answer: Biologic therapies for rheumatoid arthritis are effective. They reduce some of the signs and symptoms of RA, like the number of tender or swollen joints, pain, and disability. And they can slow or stop joint damage. Still, relief doesn't come cheap. Biologics can be expensive, even with medical insurance.


Question: How did the Healthcare Reform Act work to make biologics more affordable?

Answer: They reduce some of the signs and symptoms of RA, like the number of tender or swollen joints, pain, and disability. Trials must show that a biosimilar drug is as safe and effective as the original biologic. The FDA is still refining the requirements a drug will have to meet to be called "biosimilar."


Question: Why are biologic treatments for rheumatoid arthritis so expensive?

Answer: Biologic therapies for rheumatoid arthritis are effective. The materials needed to create them cost more, and the manufacturing process, which uses live organisms, is more complex. The cost of research and development is higher, too. Biologics use technology called genetic modification. Simply put, biologics target specific parts of RA's inflammatory process while sparing others. Drugmakers say the cost of researching and developing these drugs makes them much more expensive than chemical drugs. There isn't as much brand competition. Because many biologics work in different ways to ease inflammation, there aren't as many similar drugs. As a result, pharmacy benefit managers can't negotiate prices for them. The way they are given. You'll get some biologics by IV in a rheumatologist's office or infusion center. You take DMARDs by mouth at home. The fact that some biologics are taken by IV also affects the way Medicare will reimburse you for them. If you can't afford that, there are still ways to get the medications your doctor recommends: Patient assistance plans: Most, if not all, companies that make biologics offer plans to help people who can't afford them. To find out if the drug company that makes your biologic offers assistance, talk with your doctor or check the company's website.


Question: What drugs interact with hypothyroidism medicine?

Answer: Some medicines can affect the way your thyroid drug works, including: Anti-seizure medicines like carbamazepine ( Tegretol) and phenytoin sodium ( Dilantin) Birth control pills and estrogen Cancer drugs called tyrosine kinase inhibitors Medicines for depression, like sertraline ( Zoloft) Testosterone If you take one of these meds, talk to your doctor about how you should time taking your other medications based on when you take your thyroid medication.


Question: What are the side effects of moedications used for hypothyroidism?

Answer: The main risk of thyroid medicine is if you take too much of it, you can get symptoms of an overactive thyroid, like: Fast heartbeat Sensitivity to heat Hunger Nervousness and anxiety Shakiness Sweating Thin skin and brittle hair Tiredness Trouble sleeping Weight loss If you have any of these, see your doctor for a blood test. He may need to lower your dose.


Question: How should I take my hypothyroid medicine?

Answer: To make sure your hypothyroidism stays under control: Stick with the same brand. Different types of thyroid hormone medicine may contain slightly different doses. That could mess with your hormone levels. Follow a schedule. Take your medicine at the same time each day. Aim for about an hour before a meal or at bedtime. Don't take it when you eat. Food can affect the way your body uses it. Don't skip doses. If you miss one, take it as soon as you remember. You can take two pills in one day if you need to. Follow instructions carefully. Don't stop taking your medicine without first checking with your doctor.


Question: How long will I have to take medicine for my hypothyroidism>

Answer: You'll need to keep taking thyroid medicine throughout your life to control your hormone levels. Keep up with your treatment and you'll see results. You'll feel better, and your levels won't drop again.


Question: What is the most common treatment for hypothyroidism?

Answer: It's not a cure, but it can keep your condition under control for the rest of your life. The most common treatment is levothyroxine ( Levoxyl, Synthroid, Tirosint, Unithroid, Unithroid Direct), a man-made version of the thyroid hormone thyroxine ( T4). It acts just like the hormone your thyroid gland normally makes. The right dose can make you feel a lot better. You'll need to keep taking thyroid medicine throughout your life to control your hormone levels.


Question: What can I expect from my hypothyroid treatment?

Answer: About 6 weeks after you start taking the medicine, you'll go back to your doctor for a blood test to check your thyroid hormone levels. But it may take a few months for your thyroid hormone levels to get back to normal. If your levels get better, but you still have symptoms like fatigue and weight gain, your doctor may need to change your treatment.


Question: What is Celiac disease and how is it related to IBS?

Answer: Research suggests that as many as 1 in 5 people with this condition, in which the body can't digest a protein in wheat called gluten, also have IBS. The intestinal inflammation they get when they eat foods like pasta, bread, and beer may make them more likely to get IBS. Symptoms typically go away once you stop eating foods that have gluten.


Question: Do people with IBS also have lactose intolerance?

Answer: One in three people with IBS don't feel good after they eat dairy products, a condition called lactose intolerance. They may have diarrhea, bloating, and gas. It could be that those foods irritate the already sensitive intestines of people with IBS. If you don't feel good 30 minutes to 2 hours after you eat milk, cheese, or yogurt, talk to your doctor. She might order tests to see how your body handles lactose, the sugar in dairy foods. You might need to cut back on the milk products you eat, but you can also try taking lactase tablets or drops to help you digest them.


Question: Do people with IBS have too much gut bacteria?

Answer: But people with IBS are more likely to have too many of these germs, a condition called small intestinal bacterial overgrowth ( SIBO). It can cause diarrhea that doesn't get better, weight loss, and a lack of vitamins in the body. Your doctor can do some tests to see if SIBO is the cause of your symptoms. If it is, antibiotics can kill the extra bacteria in your gut.


Question: What does pain management involve for Peyronie's disease?

Answer: In most men who have penile pain due to Peyronie's disease, the discomfort usually will fade on its own as the penile inflammation subsides. This process may take as long as 6 to 18 months.


Question: What are other ways to treat Peyronie's disease?

Answer: But because radiation therapy can only relieve pain associated with Peyronie's disease and pain often stops without treatment, it's rarely done.


Question: How effective is surgery for Peyronie's disease?

Answer: But because of the possibility of complications that can't be corrected, most doctors prefer to operate only on the small number of men with curvature so severe that it prevents sex.


Question: How do doctors diagnose Peyronie's disease?

Answer: You'll get an exam in which your doctor will feel the hardened tissue caused by the disease during an exam. It's not always necessary, but if the penis has to be erect for the exam, the doctor would inject a medicine to make that happen. There's a chance you may need to get an X-ray or ultrasound of the penis. It's rare, but in some cases where the doctor's exam does not confirm Peyronie's disease, or if the condition develops rapidly, your doctor may do a biopsy. That involves removing a little bit of tissue from the affected area for lab tests.


Question: How is Peyronie's disease treated?

Answer: If you need treatment, your doctor will consider surgery or medicine. First, your doctor will probably prescribe a pill, such as pentoxifylline or potassium para-aminobenzoate ( Potaba). If those don't work, you may get a shot of verapamil or collagenase ( Xiaflex) into the scar tissue of the penis. If nothing else works, your doctor may consider surgery, but usually only for men who can't have sex because of their Peyronie's disease.


Question: Who gets Peyronie's disease?

Answer: In some men, injury and genes could both be involved. It becomes more common as a man gets older.


Question: What causes Peyronie's disease?

Answer: Many researchers believe the fibrous plaque can start after trauma (hitting or bending) that causes bleeding inside the penis. You might not notice the injury or trauma. Other cases, which develop over time, may be linked to genes. In some men, injury and genes could both be involved. Some medications list Peyronie's disease as a possible side effect. Also, the pain that comes from Peyronie's disease happens only with an erection and is usually mild.


Question: What are the symptoms of reactive arthritis?

Answer: The first symptoms of reactive arthritis are painful urination and a discharge from the penis if there is inflammation of the urethra. Diarrhea may occur if the intestines are affected. This is then followed by arthritis four to 28 days later that usually affects the fingers, toes, ankles, hips, and knee joints. Typically, only one or a few of these joints may be affected at one time. Other symptoms include: Mouth ulcers Inflammation of the eye Keratoderma blennorrhagica (patches of scaly skin on the palms, soles, trunk, or scalp) Back pain from sacroiliac ( SI) joint involvement Pain from inflammation of the ligaments and tendons at the sites of their insertion into the bone (enthesitis) Diagnosis of reactive arthritis can be complicated by the fact that symptoms often occur several weeks apart.


Question: What is the outlook for people with reactive arthritis?

Answer: Reactive arthritis, formerly referred to as Reiter's syndrome, is a form of arthritis that affects the joints, eyes, urethra (the tube that carries urine from the bladder to the outside of the body), and skin. Most people recover in three to four months, but about half have recurrences for several years. Some people develop complications that may include inflammation of the heart muscle, inflammation with stiffening of the spine, glaucoma, progressive blindness, feet abnormalities, or accumulation of fluid in the lungs.


Question: What is reactive arthritis?

Answer: Reactive arthritis, formerly referred to as Reiter's syndrome, is a form of arthritis that affects the joints, eyes, urethra (the tube that carries urine from the bladder to the outside of the body), and skin. It may come on quickly and severely or more slowly, with sudden remissions or recurrences. The first symptoms of reactive arthritis are painful urination and a discharge from the penis if there is inflammation of the urethra.


Question: Where can you get support if you're HIV-positive?

Answer: A wide range of people can help provide you with the emotional and physical support you may need to cope with your diagnosis of HIV. Discuss with your doctor the information you get from these sources. Some are accurate; some are not. A person at the hotline can provide you with practical advice or emotional support over the phone. They can also refer you to local HIV/ AIDS self-help organizations.


Question: What should I know about primary tooth eruption?

Answer: Primary Teeth Development Chart Upper Teeth When tooth emerges When tooth falls out Central incisor 8 to 12 months 6 to 7 years Lateral incisor 9 to 13 months 7 to 8 years Canine (cuspid) 16 to 22 months 10 to 12 years First molar 13 to 19 months 9 to 11 years Second molar 25 to 33 months 10 to 12 years Lower Teeth Second molar 23 to 31 months 10 to 12 years First molar 14 to 18 months 9 to 11 years Canine (cuspid) 17 to 23 months 9 to 12 years Lateral incisor 10 to 16 months 7 to 8 years Central incisor 6 to 10 months 6 to 7 years Other primary tooth eruption facts: A general rule of thumb is that for every 6 months of life, approximately 4 teeth will erupt. Girls generally precede boys in tooth eruption. Lower teeth usually erupt before upper teeth. Teeth in both jaws usually erupt in pairs -- one on the right and one on the left. Primary teeth are smaller in size and whiter in color than the permanent teeth that will follow. By the time a child is 2 to 3 years of age, all primary teeth should have erupted.


Question: What is the natural growth process for my child's teeth?

Answer: The complete set of primary teeth is in the mouth from the age of 2 ½ to 3 years of age to 6 to 7 years of age. This is a perfectly natural growth process that provides the necessary space for the larger permanent teeth to emerge. Between the ages of 6 and 12, a mixture of both primary teeth and permanent teeth reside in the mouth.


Question: How is atrial fibrillation treated?

Answer: AFib treatments also prevent clots and help keep your heart healthy. These can prevent clots and strokes, slow your heart rate, and control your heart rhythm.


Question: What is it like if you have atrial fibrillation?

Answer: With AFib, your heart quivers, beats too quickly, or skips beats. It can't pump blood through its chambers and out to your body as well as it should. Sometimes blood can pool in the heart and form clots, which could lead to a stroke.


Question: When do you need surgery for atrial fibrillation?

Answer: You and your doctor have treatment options if your symptoms become too severe.


Question: How are the causes of atrial fibrillation treated?

Answer: If problems such as high blood pressure, cholesterol, or an overactive thyroid caused your AFib, you'll need to treat the root cause. Your doctor might prescribe medications to get those conditions under control. Your doctor may also recommend screening and treatment for sleep apnea, a disorder in which breathing starts and stops throughout the night.


Question: What is the maze procedure for atrial fibrillation?

Answer: The surgeon makes small cuts in the upper part of your heart. They're stitched together to form the scar tissue that stops abnormal signals. Mini maze: Most people with AFib don't need open-heart surgery.


Question: What is ablation for atrial fibrillation?

Answer: With AFib, your heart quivers, beats too quickly, or skips beats. Your doctor puts a thin, flexible tube into a blood vessel in your leg or neck. They're stitched together to form the scar tissue that stops abnormal signals. She'll send radiofrequency energy through the catheter to destroy the AV node. Your doctor also might recommend you take some simple steps to help keep your heart healthy: Change your diet -- eat heart-healthy, low-salt food.


Question: What is left atrial appendage occlusion for atrial fibrillation?

Answer: These can prevent clots and strokes, slow your heart rate, and control your heart rhythm. Your doctor puts a thin, flexible tube into a blood vessel in your leg or neck. The surgeon makes small cuts in the upper part of your heart.


Question: What are the symptoms of pinkeye?

Answer: They depend on the cause of the inflammation, but may include: Redness in the white of the eye or inner eyelid Swollen conjunctiva More tears than usual Thick yellow discharge that crusts over the eyelashes, especially after sleep.


Question: How is pinkeye from bacteria treated?

Answer: If bacteria, including those related to STDs, caused your pinkeye, you'll take antibiotics in the form of eyedrops, ointments, or pills. You may need to apply eyedrops or ointments to the inside of your eyelid 3 to 4 times a day for 5 to 7 days. You would take pills for several days. The infection should improve within a week. Take or use the medicines as instructed by your doctor, even if the symptoms go away.


Question: What are the complications of pinkeye?

Answer: Usually, pinkeye clears up on its own or after you take any medicines your doctor prescribes, with no lasting problems. Mild pinkeye is almost always harmless and will get better without treatment. But some forms of conjunctivitis can become serious and sight-threatening, because they can scar your cornea. They include conjunctivitis caused by gonorrhea, chlamydia, or certain strains of the adenovirus.


Question: How is pinkeye from allergies treated?

Answer: Conjunctivitis tied to allergies should improve once you get your allergy treated and avoid your allergy trigger. Antihistamines (either oral or drops) can give relief in the meantime. ( But remember that if you have dry eyes, taking antihistamines by mouth can make your eyes even drier.) See your doctor if you think your pinkeye is due to an allergy.


Question: How is pinkeye from irritants treated?

Answer: For pinkeye caused by an irritating substance, use water to wash the substance from the eye for 5 minutes. Your eyes should begin to improve within 4 hours. If your conjunctivitis was caused by acid or alkaline material such as bleach, immediately rinse the eyes with lots of water and call your doctor right away.


Question: How can I prevent spreading pinkeye?

Answer: Wash your hands often with soap and warm water, especially before eating. Afterward, discard the cotton ball or paper towel and wash your hands with soap and warm water. When you do the laundry, clean your bed linens, pillowcases, and towels in hot water and detergent. Don 't touch or rub your infected eye with your fingers. Don 't wear, and never share, eye makeup, eyedrops, or contact lenses. Wear glasses. And throw away disposable lenses, or be sure to clean extended-wear lenses and all eyewear cases. If your child has bacterial or viral pinkeye, keep them home from school or day care until they are no longer contagious. It's usually safe to return to school when symptoms are gone.


Question: What can I do to relieve symptoms of pinkeye?

Answer: Don 't wear, and never share, eye makeup, eyedrops, or contact lenses. Protect your eyes from dirt and other things that irritate them. Nonprescription "artificial tears," a type of eyedrops, may help ease itching and burning from the irritating things that cause your pinkeye. But you shouldn't use other types of eyedrops because they may irritate the eyes, including those promoted to treat eye redness. Don't use the same bottle of drops in an uninfected eye.


Question: How can I avoid getting pinkeye?

Answer: Viral pinkeye: Red, irritated eyes. You can treat it with antibotics. ( But remember that if you have dry eyes, taking antihistamines by mouth can make your eyes even drier.) Wash your hands often with soap and warm water, especially before eating. Keep your own towels, washcloths, and pillows separate from others, or use paper towels. Don 't wear, and never share, eye makeup, eyedrops, or contact lenses. It also helps to learn how to use eyedrops the right way.


Question: How is pinkeye from viruses treated?

Answer: Viruses. This type of pinkeye often results from the viruses that cause a common cold. Just as a cold must run its course, the same is true for this form of pinkeye, which usually lasts from 4 to 7 days. Remember, it can be very contagious, so do everything you can to prevent its spread. See your doctor if you think your pinkeye is due to an allergy. Wear glasses. For instance, if you share a computer or other gear with others, make sure you wash your hands before you touch your face, especially during cold and flu season.


Question: What are some urine tests that doctors do to help diagnose bladder cancer?

Answer: Urine culture. Your doctor will send your urine to a lab. Urine tumor marker tests. These look for substances that are released by bladder cancer cells. Your doctor may use one or more of these along with a urine cytology to see if you have the disease. If cancer in your bladder spread to your lungs, this test will allow your doctor to see it.


Question: How does psychotherapy treat schizophreniform disorder?

Answer: Psychotherapy: The goal is to help the person recognize and learn about the illness and its treatment, set goals, and manage everyday problems related to the condition. It can also help the person handle the feelings of distress linked to the symptoms.


Question: What to expect with schizophreniform disorder?

Answer: People with schizophreniform disorder recover within 6 months. If the symptoms don't improve, the person likely has schizophrenia, which is a lifelong illness. According to the American Psychiatric Association, about two-thirds of people with schizophreniform disorder go on to develop schizophrenia.


Question: What types of medications can treat schizophreniform disorder?

Answer: Medication: Antipsychotic drugs are the main medications that doctors use to treat the psychotic symptoms of schizophreniform disorder, such as delusions, hallucinations, and disordered thinking.


Question: What is the treatment for schizophreniform disorder?

Answer: People with severe symptoms or who are at risk of hurting themselves or others may need to be hospitalized to get their condition under control. Medication: Antipsychotic drugs are the main medications that doctors use to treat the psychotic symptoms of schizophreniform disorder, such as delusions, hallucinations, and disordered thinking.


Question: How do doctors diagnose schizophreniform disorder?

Answer: If someone has symptoms, a doctor may use various tests -- such as brain imaging (like MRI scans) or blood tests -- to rule out a nonpsychiatric medical problem. If the doctor finds no physical reason for the symptoms, he or she may refer the person to a psychiatrist or psychologist, mental health professionals who are trained to diagnose and treat mental illnesses. They use specially designed interview and assessment tools to see if someone has a psychotic disorder. For a diagnosis of schizophreniform disorder, the symptoms can only have lasted for less than 6 months.


Question: How common is schizophreniform disorder?

Answer: In women, it most often happens between ages 24 and 35.


Question: How can someone prevent schizophreniform disorder?

Answer: Like schizophrenia, schizophreniform disorder is a type of "psychosis" in which a person cannot tell what is real from what is imagined. But early diagnosis and treatment are very important, because they can help to limit damage to the person's life, family, and other relationships.


Question: What is schizophreniform disorder?

Answer: Like schizophrenia, schizophreniform disorder is a type of "psychosis" in which a person cannot tell what is real from what is imagined. It also affects how people think, act, express emotions, and relate to others. If symptoms last longer than 6 months, doctors consider the person to have schizophrenia rather than schizophreniform disorder. For a diagnosis of schizophreniform disorder, the symptoms can only have lasted for less than 6 months.


Question: What is a gastrologist?

Answer: You may need to visit a gastroenterologist for health concerns with your: Esophagus, the tube that connects your mouth to your stomach Stomach Small intestine Colon Rectum Pancreas Gallbladder Bile ducts Liver Technically, a gastrologist is someone who specializes in gastrology. That could mean caring for the stomach with medicine. It could also mean caring for the stomach with food. Gastrology may have been a medical term in the early 1900s, judging by journals from around that time. If so, the word was long ago replaced by gastroenterology. You won't find doctors who describe themselves as gastrologists today -- at least not in the U. S. There are many reasons you may visit a gastroenterologist.


Question: What is a gastroenterologist?

Answer: Gastroenterologists are doctors who are trained to diagnose and treat problems in your gastrointestinal ( GI) tract and liver. They have 5 to 6 years of specialized education after medical school. You may need to visit a gastroenterologist for health concerns with your: Esophagus, the tube that connects your mouth to your stomach Stomach Small intestine Colon Rectum Pancreas Gallbladder Bile ducts Liver Technically, a gastrologist is someone who specializes in gastrology.


Question: What is the difference between a gastrologist and a gastroenterologist?

Answer: It's easy to see why many people call it gastrologyby mistake. Gastrology does have a medical definition: It's the study of the stomach and stomach diseases. But it's not a medical specialty in the United States today. The type of doctor you'd see for stomach problems is a gastroenterologist, not a gastrologist. That could mean caring for the stomach with medicine.


Question: How does acupuncture help the flu?

Answer: The World Health Organization supports the use of acupuncture for respiratory and infectious complications of the flu.


Question: Which antiviral medicines treat and prevent the flu?

Answer: To treat and prevent both influenza A and B, there are baloxavir marboxil ( Xofluza), oseltamivir ( Tamiflu), peramivir ( Rapivab), and zanamivir ( Relenza). Zanamivir is inhaled like an asthma medication. Tamiflu and Xofluza are taken as pills and Rapivab is given in one intravenous dose.


Question: Is garlic good for the flu?

Answer: Many claims have been made, but there isn't enough research demonstrating any benefit of many herbs, including garlic and ginseng. Garlic is known to prevent the blood from clotting, so if you're on "blood thinners," it could present a problem. Garlic's active ingredient, allicin, can be found in a wide range of supplements. However, recent studies have shown the actual amount you get may vary greatly, and often, you get very little of it. Garlic does have some natural anti-viral properties, but has no proven effectiveness in the prevention or treatment of the flu. If you feel that garlic is important for your health, it's safe, the fresh variety may be the best choice.


Question: What herbs can relieve flu symptoms?

Answer: Herbs including elderflower, myrrh, willow bark, rose hips, honeysuckle flowers, and boneset have also been suggested for relief from the many symptoms that accompany the flu.


Question: Is echinacea good for the flu?

Answer: Be sure your medical doctor knows of everything you are taking -- standard medicine and alternatives. There are few well-designed studies on how these herbs and supplements treat and prevent influenza.


Question: What are some tips to help a teenager take charge of their feelings about a sick or dying sibling?

Answer: Tips for helping teenage siblings of a sick or dying child: Let friends and boyfriends or girlfriends be involved. Palliative care teams encourage friends to visit and extend their support services to them. Don't be hurt when teenagers seek the support of their friends more than their parents. As teenagers' grief is more like that of adults, teenagers who lose a sibling may need more time off of school and regular activities.


Question: What are tips to help a 10- to 12-year-old sibling cope with their feelings about a sick or dying child?

Answer: Tips for helping 10- to 12-year-old siblings of a sick or dying child: Find opportunities for constructive venting of feelings, such as sibling groups at hospitals and art or play therapies. Provide as much specific, factual information as possible. Keep siblings in regular routines as much as possible. It may not seem like long, but professionals advise that children under age 12 not miss more than a week of school after a sibling has died. But they acknowledge that each child has unique needs.


Question: How should I talk to my child about death?

Answer: Experts advise parents to be honest and concrete in discussions about death. Avoid euphemisms. Adults use euphemisms to avoid uncomfortable subjects, but children, who think literally throughout a great deal of childhood, may not pick up on these cues. If a parent tells a child whose sibling has died that the sibling is sleeping, the child may expect the sibling to wake up. If the parent says the sibling will not wake up, the child may fear going to sleep and not waking up.


Question: What should I expect if I talk to my children about life-threatening conditions?

Answer: When a family member has a life-threatening condition, frequently children will ask questions. The older they get, the more specific their questions will be. As teenagers, they may even be the ones guiding the conversation. Although the answers to their questions may bring bad news, children do not process bad news in the same way that adults do. Parents may be hurt by this. Adults understand the permanence of death immediately, so we respond with tears. Children, especially those under age 12, may not understand the permanence of death right away, so they may not have a strong initial reaction to bad news.


Question: What might happen if parents avoid a child's questions about death if the child has a life-threatening illness?

Answer: If parents avoid children's questions, the children may ask someone else or hold the questions in, which could result in unnecessary anxiety. Acknowledging rather than disregarding questions can build trust and show children that their concerns are important.


Question: How do 6- to 9-year-olds understand death and dying?

Answer: 6- to 9-year-olds have a more evolved sense of dying: They associate death with old age. They may not understand that they or a sibling could die. They know more about how the body works, so they may have specific questions about how someone dies. A sibling may think that a bruise on his own body indicates the same illness a brother or sister had. They may associate death with frightening images from cartoons, such as ghosts and spirits.


Question: How well can infant and toddler siblings of a sick or dying child understand what is happening?

Answer: Each year of a child's life brings enhanced ability to understand the reality and permanence of death. Infant and toddler siblings of a sick or dying child can feel loss through: Absence of a parent or of a sibling due to the treatment or death of the sibling Interruption to routine caused by the treatment or death of a sibling Grief and stress of their parents or other family members These tips may help manage the feelings infant or toddler siblings of a sick or dying child may have: Make time each day to hold, rock, and cuddle the sibling.


Question: What can parents say if they don't want to use the words "die, dead", and "dying" with their sick child?

Answer: If parents cannot say these words, the palliative care team can help explain as much as the parents want their children to know.


Question: What are tips to help a 6- to 9-year-old sibling cope with their feelings about a sick or dying child?

Answer: Tips for helping 6- to 9-year-old siblings understand their feelings about a sick or dying child: Use visual aids they can understand. Child life specialists have used marshmallows to explain tumor growth or described leukemia as a thickening of the blood. Make specific references to organs like heart and lungs. Make clear that death is not like the images in cartoons. Make clear to siblings that what happened to a brother or sister doesn't happen to everyone.


Question: How might siblings of a child with a life-threatening condition react?

Answer: When a child is dying, many parents want the siblings to be at the child's bedside with the rest of the family. Child life specialists will help facilitate this, but they advise parents that siblings may want to leave the room quickly and return to what they were doing before. Parents should understand that this behavior is normal.


Question: How do teenagers understand death?

Answer: Teenagers understand death with a more personal and long-term view: They may want to talk to their friends more than to their parents. They understand more on their own, so adults are validating information rather than giving it. They understand their lives in the context of others', so they will want to leave a legacy and plan for their own deaths.


Question: Are there resources to start the conversation with a child about their life-threatening condition?

Answer: Social workers and child life specialists recommend a number of resources -- such as story and activity books -- that may help break the ice and help explain difficult concepts. Professionals also encourage parents to use children's questions as opportunities to start a conversation.


Question: What are some tips to soothe and care for an infant or toddler if their sibling is sick or dying?

Answer: Infant and toddler siblings of a sick or dying child can feel loss through: Absence of a parent or of a sibling due to the treatment or death of the sibling Interruption to routine caused by the treatment or death of a sibling Grief and stress of their parents or other family members These tips may help manage the feelings infant or toddler siblings of a sick or dying child may have: Make time each day to hold, rock, and cuddle the sibling. Keep the child on a schedule as much as possible. Play a recording of parents reading a story or talking to the sibling in the parent's absence.


Question: If your child has a life-threatening condition and you're not sure how to talk to them about it, is there a medical professional who can help you?

Answer: If parents cannot say these words, the palliative care team can help explain as much as the parents want their children to know.


Question: How might children react sometimes to heavy conversations about their life-threatening condition?

Answer: Children can feel insecure during heavy or serious conversation. They may want to get back to normal as soon as possible. This may mean returning quickly to the game they were playing or the TV show they were watching. This doesn't mean the child didn't hear or understand. Parents can join the child in the activity in order to be there when questions arise.


Question: How do 3- to 5-year olds understand a sick or dying sibling?

Answer: They may believe death is temporary or reversible. They are ego-centric and may believe the death of a sibling is punishment for something they did.


Question: How do 10- to 12-year-olds understand death?

Answer: 10- to 12-year-olds understand the permanence of death: They know that death is final and will happen to everyone including themselves. They understand that their own death or the death of a sibling will cause sadness in others. A sick child at this age may say he has to hold on for his parents' sake. They will respond more like adults with anger, sadness, and fear. They will have increasingly more specific questions about the illness and about death.


Question: Should you talk with your child about death if they have a life-threatening condition or a terminal illness?

Answer: If parents choose to talk to their children about their sick child's prognosis, the palliative care team can be there to help.


Question: What are tips to help a 3- to 5-year-old sibling cope with their feelings about a sick or dying child?

Answer: Tips for helping 3- to 5-year-old siblings cope with their feelings about a sick or dying child: Use concrete language, such as "die," not euphemisms such as "sleep." At this age a child can understand " Your brother's body stopped working"; " Your sister stopped breathing." Make it clear to siblings that the death is not a consequence of something they did.


Question: How do I break bad news to my children if they have a life-threatening condition?

Answer: Some professionals will recommend open and direct communication with children about the child's prognosis at all times. When a child has been following the progress of treatments, a parent or palliative care professional can say something similar to, " Remember the medicine we hoped would make you better? It's not doing what we hoped it would do." Although the answers to their questions may bring bad news, children do not process bad news in the same way that adults do.


Question: What is volvulus?

Answer: This medical emergency occurs when your child's intestine twists around itself, blocking the flow of waste. In some cases, the blood supply is also cut off. It will require surgery to fix, but most children have normal growth and health afterward.


Question: What are eosinophilic gastrointestinal disorders (EGID)?

Answer: Here are some common severe digestive disorders in children. EGIDs - the most common of them is called eosinophilic esophagitis - are disorders that result from extra white blood cells in your child's digestive tract. This causes inflammation and swelling, which can result in pain and discomfort. He may also have trouble swallowing. There's no cure for EGIDs, but medications like steroids can lower the number of white blood cells in his gut and ease symptoms. The doctor may suggest cutting out certain foods that could be causing allergic reactions, or other special diets. A severe case may require use of a feeding tube.


Question: What type of digestive disorder is celiac disease?

Answer: Children with celiac disease have a serious reaction when they eat gluten, a protein in wheat, barley, and rye. This disorder can damage the small intestine and keep your child's body from absorbing nutrients in his food. Following a gluten-free diet is the only treatment for celiac disease. It will likely stop damage to the intestine help heal any that has already happened.


Question: What causes short bowel syndrome?

Answer: With this condition, a child doesn't have enough intestine to absorb nutrients and fluids well. Some children are born with missing sections; others have had surgery to remove part of the intestine. Other causes of short bowel syndrome are: Crohn's disease Intussusception A blocked blood vessel, which can slow blood flow to the intestine Injury to the intestine Cancer Diarrhea is usually the most common symptom. Short bowel syndrome can lead to problems like malnutrition, dehydration, kidney stones, and severe diaper rash.


Question: What type of digestive disorder is inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)?

Answer: IBD usually happens in older children or teens. It includes two major digestive disorders: Ulcerative colitis, which causes swelling in the colon Crohn's disease, which can affect any part of the digestive tract Bloody or watery poop and belly pain are common symptoms of both.


Question: What is the treatment for short bowel syndrome?

Answer: A severe case may require use of a feeding tube. Medications can ease symptoms and slow the passage of food through your child's digestive system, so nutrients are absorbed better. Sometimes surgery is required.


Question: How can I get enough sleep?

Answer: Is your sleep different than it used to be when you were younger? If you sleep less than when you were younger but still feel rested and energetic during the day, it might be that you now need less sleep. But if you have noticed that your lack of sleep affects you during the day, tell your doctor. There are steps you can take to get better rest. Many are simple tweaks to your daily routine, like setting a regular bedtime, being more active, and taking steps to ease your mind before you hit the hay.


Question: What is restless legs syndrome in children?

Answer: Restless legs syndrome ( RLS) is not unusual in children 8 years of age and older. This neurological sleep disorder causes a creeping, crawling sensation in the legs (and sometimes in the arms) that creates an irresistible urge to move.


Question: What are night terrors?

Answer: With night terrors -- also called sleep terrors -- the child has a sudden arousal from sleep with extreme agitation, screaming, crying, increased heart rate, and dilated pupils. Like sleep walking, night terrors seem to be linked to an immature central nervous system and are often outgrown. These sleep terrors usually begin after age 18 months and disappear by age 6.


Question: How much sleep do children need?

Answer: Sleep experts suggest that elementary-aged children should get 10 to 11 hours of sleep each night. Preschool-aged children should sleep about 11 to 13 hours a night.


Question: How can I help my child's sleep problems?

Answer: If your child is sleep walking, wetting the bed, or experiencing other sleep disturbances such as night terrors, talk with his doctor. Sometimes, emotional stress is the culprit. In most cases of emotional stress, the problem can be easily resolved with a few behavioral interventions. In addition, watch your child as he sleeps to determine a pattern in his sleeping and possible snoring or sleep apnea. If your child suffers from allergies or asthma, make sure he is taking medication properly. Again, your child's doctor is the best source for treatments for sleep problems.


Question: How can I lower my chances of getting enterovirus D68?

Answer: You can lower your chances of getting it by following these tips: Wash your hands often. Scrub with soap for 20 seconds. (especially before eating) Don't touch your eyes, nose, or mouth unless you've just washed your hands. Don't hug, kiss, or share food with anyone who's sick. If someone in your house is ill, it's a good idea to regularly disinfect surfaces that are touched a lot, such as toys and doorknobs. A person who is ill should always cover their mouth when coughing/sneezing, wear a mask and wash hands often. Staying in a separate room in the house helps contain the infection.


Question: How is enterovirus D68 treated?

Answer: No medicines target this virus. Antibiotics won't help, since the illness is not caused by bacteria. You can take an over-the-counter pain/fever reliever, which might help you feel a little better, just like with a normal cold. If your symptoms are severe, you should call your doctor or go to the emergency room. If it's an emergency -- for instance, you're having trouble breathing -- call 911. You may need to be hospitalized.


Question: When will I be able to go home after a liver transplant?

Answer: Some patients may be discharged in less time, while others may be in the hospital much longer, depending on any complications that may arise. To provide a smooth transition from hospital to home, the nursing staff and your transplant coordinator will begin to prepare you for discharge shortly after you are transferred from the intensive-care unit to the regular nursing floor. You will be given a discharge manual, which reviews much of what you will need to know before you go home. Readmission after discharge is common, especially within the first year after a transplant. Your first return appointment after a liver transplant will generally be scheduled about 1 to 2 weeks after discharge.


Question: How long does a liver transplant take?

Answer: If the donor liver is found to be acceptable, you will proceed with the transplant. After that, follow-up is 3, 6, 9 and 12 months from the date of the transplant, and then once a year for the rest of your life.


Question: What tests will you need before a liver transplant?

Answer: The team may include the following professionals: Liver specialist (hepatologist) Transplant surgeons Transplant coordinator, usually a registered nurse who specializes in the care of liver-transplant patients (this person will be your primary contact with the transplant team) Social worker to discuss your support network of family and friends, employment history, and financial needs Psychiatrist to help you deal with issues, such as anxiety and depression, which may accompany a liver transplant Anesthesiologist to discuss potential anesthesia risks Chemical dependency specialist to aid those with history of alcohol or drug abuse Financial counselor to act as a liaison between a patient and his or her insurance companies You will need to bring all previous doctor records, X-rays, liver biopsy slides, and a record of medications to your pre-evaluation for a liver transplant. Pulmonary function studies to determine the lungs' ability to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide Blood tests to determine blood type, clotting ability, and biochemical status of blood, and to gauge liver function.


Question: What are anti-rejection medications?

Answer: Two of the most common complications following liver transplant are rejection and infection. Infection: Because anti-rejection drugs that suppress your immune system are needed to prevent the liver from being rejected, you are at higher risk for infections. This typically involves a combination of a calcineurin inhibitor ( CNI) such as cyclosporine ( Neoral) or tacrolimus ( Prograf), a glucocorticoid such as prednisone ( Medrol, Prelone, Sterapred DS), and a third agent such as azathioprine ( Imuran), mycophenolate mofetil ( Cell Cept), sirolimus ( Rapamune), or everolimus ( Zortress, Afinitor). Your first return appointment after a liver transplant will generally be scheduled about 1 to 2 weeks after discharge. After that, follow-up is 3, 6, 9 and 12 months from the date of the transplant, and then once a year for the rest of your life.


Question: What are complications of a liver transplant?

Answer: Two of the most common complications following liver transplant are rejection and infection. So, your immune system may attempt to attack and destroy your new liver. About 64% of all liver-transplant patients have some degree of organ rejection, most within the first 90 days of transplant. Infection: Because anti-rejection drugs that suppress your immune system are needed to prevent the liver from being rejected, you are at higher risk for infections. This problem lessens as time passes.


Question: How can skipping meals trigger migraines?

Answer: Being hungry to the point that you feel shaky can bring on a migraine. Some researchers think low glucose (blood sugar) levels may cause changes in your brain that bring them on.


Question: How can sleeping too much or too little trigger migraines?

Answer: It's important to keep a regular schedule. If you can't fall or stay asleep or if you're getting 7 to 8 hours a night and still feel tired, talk to your doctor. You could have a sleep disorder like sleep apnea or insomnia. They can cause headaches, including migraine headaches. Getting treatment for them may help ease your aching head.


Question: How can a food diary help with migraines?

Answer: Researchers are still trying to figure out why some people get migraines and others don't. Common culprits include aged cheese; food additives like nitrates, which are often found in hot dogs, bacon, and other processed meat; nuts; and alcohol.


Question: How can ignoring a migraine make it worse?

Answer: If you can't fall or stay asleep or if you're getting 7 to 8 hours a night and still feel tired, talk to your doctor. If you can, lie down in a dark, quiet place until it passes. You also can try putting a cool, damp cloth on your forehead. Some people find that massaging their scalp also helps relieve head pain.


Question: What follow-up doctor appointments is a teen likely to have after meningitis?

Answer: Your teen is likely to have a: Hearing test before leaving the hospital or within 4 weeks Follow-up visit in 4-6 weeks to check in and look for aftereffects One thing that can be hard for your teen is that from the outside, everything may look fine, even as he might struggle with tiredness or other problems.


Question: Can meningitis have lasting effects on a teen?

Answer: Most teens get through meningitis without any aftereffects, but some will have them. And because meningitis affects the brain, they can be serious. Sometimes, the symptoms are temporary, fading after a few weeks or months. In other cases, they present lifelong challenges.


Question: How is a sinus infection diagnosed?

Answer: Your doctor will give you a physical exam and take your medical history. You might get a CT scan of your sinuses.


Question: What causes sinus infections?

Answer: Any condition that blocks off the drainage channels of your sinuses can cause a sinus infection, such as: Colds Allergies such as hay fever Non-allergic rhinitis (symptoms that are like an allergy but don't have a known cause) Nasal polyps (small growths in the lining of your nose) A sinus infection may start after a cold.