Question: How do you treat syphilis?

Answer: Early treatment is crucial to prevent the bacteria from spreading to and damaging other organs.


Question: How do you treat chlamydia and gonorrhea?

Answer: Chlamydia and Gonorrhea: These STDs are treated with antibiotics. You should begin taking them if tests show you have chlamydia or gonorrhea or if you have been exposed to them, even though you may not have symptoms. Your sex partners will also have to be treated regardless of whether they have symptoms. Certain strains of gonorrhea have become resistant to some antibiotics, so you may have to take more than one drug to fight gonorrhea. Make sure your partner also seeks treatment.


Question: How do you treat HIV?

Answer: Here are some specific STD treatments: HIV / AIDS: Since AIDS is not curable, treatment focuses on keeping HIV levels in check. Antiretroviral drugs are the standard therapy for HIV infection, and usually you will be given several drugs to take, a so-called drug "cocktail."


Question: How do you treat genital warts?

Answer: However, you will still carry the virus that causes warts and can still transmit it to sex partners. If you do choose to treat genital warts, you have several options. Freezing the warts or applying medication directly to them are often the first choices. If genital warts do not respond to these options, surgery may be necessary to remove them.


Question: How can I tell if it's time to start feeding solid food to my baby?

Answer: If your baby is between 4 and 6 months old, can hold her head up, and can sit in a high chair independently, then she's ready to try eating. ( If you breastfeed, ask your doctor if you should hold off on solid foods until your baby is 6 months old. The reason: to provide her with the best nutrition.) If you try feeding her a small spoonful and the food just dribbles out, you may want to try again in a few weeks. Babies are born with a reflex that makes them push out their tongue when something is put in their mouth. Over time it goes away.


Question: How can I watch out for allergies when starting solid foods for my baby?

Answer: For safety's sake, serve your baby only one new ingredient at a time. Each time you give her a new food to taste, wait 3 to 5 days before you offer another new one. This way, if your baby has a bad reaction -- a rash, an upset stomach, a food allergy -- it's much easier to figure which food may have caused the problem. Serve new foods during the daytime, so you can watch for any reactions after she eats.


Question: Iâve started feeding my baby solid foods. How can I make sure he gets a variety of foods?

Answer: Within a short period of time, your baby will try many different foods, so she won't miss out on anything for long. After a few months, your baby will eat cereals, grains, vegetables, fruits, meats, fish, egg yolks, and dairy products like yogurt and cheese.


Question: Should I serve my baby solid foods that children are more likely to be allergic to?

Answer: There are several foods that babies and children are more likely to be allergic to, such as peanuts, eggs, and shellfish. In years past, doctors told parents to keep these foods away from babies, but new research has changed that thinking. Now, parents can serve eggs, peanuts, tree nuts (in butter form), wheat, shellfish, and other foods that are common allergens to babies as young as 4 to 6 months old. If someone in your family has a food allergy, check in with your doctor to discuss any specific questions/concerns when it comes to introducing allergenic foods to your baby.


Question: How can I better manage my stress levels after cancer treatment?

Answer: That's why stress reduction should be a regular part of your post-treatment wellness plan. Think about things that make you feel good and relaxed.


Question: Is it okay to smoke after ending cancer treatment?

Answer: It's one of the best things you can do to improve your health and lower your odds of several cancers. Most people who kick the habit use more than one type of help (for example, a prescription nicotine replacement patch and talk therapy).


Question: Where should I go for continual help after cancer treatment?

Answer: While lifestyle changes are important, it can also help to see other medical professionals. Regular doctor visits (cancer-related and otherwise) are important. Depending on your situation, your doctor or health care team may send you to a mental health counselor, a post-cancer peer support group, a dietitian, or other professionals. If cancer changed the way you feel, think, move, or function, you might try occupational therapy. This type of treatment can help you change the way you move and alter your environment (like your home and office) and activities.


Question: How can you get help for gout?

Answer: The pain from a gout attack usually gets better in 3 to 10 days. But you'll feel better faster if the gout is treated. If you think you might have it, contact your doctor. An exam and tests will show if it's gout or something else, like an infection. Talk with your doctor about the best medicines for you. The type will depend on how well your kidneys work, the possible side effects, and other health issues.


Question: How is gout treated?

Answer: NSAIDs help reduce pain and swelling in the joints during a gout attack.


Question: How can prescription medicines help with gout?

Answer: Your doctor may recommend one of these medicines that you can't get over the counter: Allopurinol ( Aloprim, Zyloprim)reduces uric acid production. Colchicine ( Colcrys) reduces inflammation. Febuxostat ( Uloric) reduces uric acid production. Indomethacin ( Indocin) is a stronger NSAID pain reliever. Lesinurad helps your body get rid of uric acid when you pee. Pegloticase ( Krystexxa) breaks down uric acid. Probenecid ( Benemid) helps the kidneys excrete uric acid from your body. Steroids (also called corticosteroids) fight inflammation.


Question: What are other ways to prevent a gout attack?

Answer: Along with medicine, your doctor may suggest other ways to prevent another attack: Exercise and eat a balanced diet to control your weight. Drink lots of water. Stay away from sugary drinks. Avoid excessive alcohol use, especially beer. Eat less meat, especially liver and sweetbreads, and seafood. Get your protein from foods like low-fat dairy. products like yogurt, cheese and milk. These medicine and lifestyle change can help you get through an attack and prevent other attacks.


Question: What nonprescription medicines are used to treat gout?

Answer: NSAIDs help reduce pain and swelling in the joints during a gout attack. Popular types are ibuprofen and naproxen. If you take NSAIDs in the first 24 hours, it can help shorten the attack. Other ways to reduce the pain are to ice, rest, and raise the joint.


Question: What do adult lice look like?

Answer: Adult lice are about 2 to 3 millimeters long, about the size of a sesame seed. They're tan or grayish-white. The color can be lighter or darker, depending on the shade of your hair. Adult lice have six legs with claws at the end that allow them to latch tightly to your hair. Typically, adult head lice live 30 days when stuck to your head. If they fall off, they die within 1 to 2 days.


Question: What type of lice is a nymph?

Answer: It's what hatches from the nit. It feeds on the blood on your scalp and keeps growing for 9 to 12 days. Nymphs (and adult lice) move quickly and avoid light.


Question: What are head lice?

Answer: These pests are a type of insect called a parasite. They need human blood to live. Head lice usually stay close to the scalp and behind the ears. You might also spot them on the eyebrows and eyelashes.


Question: How do kids get head lice?

Answer: These pesky creatures don't fly or jump -- they crawl over to the closest head they can find. This is called head-to-head contact, and most people get lice this way. But they also can spread onto hats, helmets, combs, bedding, pillows â even ear buds.


Question: What do I need to know about lice?

Answer: When these tiny mites infect the scalp and skin, they trigger intense itching and may even create a rash around the hairline. There are different types of lice. The type you have depends on the part of your body that's affected: Head lice affect the scalp. Pubic lice (also called âcrabsâ) affect your genital area. Body lice affect other areas of the body and are often found in seams of clothing.


Question: How long should I breastfeed my baby?

Answer: It can: Protect her from a wide range of common and rare early childhood diseases Raise the chances that she will make it safely through the first year of life and thrive over the long run Boost her sense of well-being and help you bond Doctors suggest you breastfeed until your baby is at least 1 year old. It doesn't work for every mother, but if it does for you, then it can be the only food or liquid she needs for the first 6 months.


Question: How can the antibodies in breast milk help my baby?

Answer: Antibodies: They help fight disease. If you come down with a virus while you're breastfeeding, you're probably going to pass it on to your baby. But your milk will also give her the antibodies that your body makes to fight the virus. She may not get sick at all. And if she does, your antibodies will help her get well sooner.


Question: Why is breast milk good for my baby?

Answer: It can: Protect her from a wide range of common and rare early childhood diseases Raise the chances that she will make it safely through the first year of life and thrive over the long run Boost her sense of well-being and help you bond Doctors suggest you breastfeed until your baby is at least 1 year old.


Question: How can prebiotics found in breast milk help my baby?

Answer: It has a mix of hormones and immune factors like: Prebiotics: They help your baby grow healthy gut bacteria and stop the bad kind from taking root. A breastfed baby is less likely to have problems with diarrhea than a formula-fed baby.


Question: What is advance directive (living will)?

Answer: Advance Directive (living will): A document written in "good" health which informs your family and health care providers of your wishes for extended medical treatment in times of emergency.


Question: What is the definition of trans-myocardial revascularization?

Answer: Trans- Myocardial Revascularization ( TMR): A procedure used in people with severe heart disease who are not candidates for bypass surgery. In this procedure, an incision is made in the chest. The heart is exposed and small holes are drilled through the wall of the heart with a laser.


Question: What is the definition of diastolic pressure?

Answer: Diastolic Pressure: The pressure of the blood in the arteries when the heart is filling. It is the lower of two blood pressure measurements; for example, if the blood pressure is 120/80, then 80 is the diastolic pressure.


Question: What is the dipyridamole stress test?

Answer: Dipyridamole Stress Test: If you are unable to exercise on a treadmill or stationary bicycle for a stress test, a drug called dipyridamole ( Persantine) is used instead of exercise to test the heart's blood flow.


Question: What is ECMO (extra corporeal membrane oxygenation)?

Answer: ECMO( Extra corporeal Membrane Oxygenation): In people who are unable to provide oxygen for their own blood or enough blood circulation, they can be put on life support known as extra corporeal membrane oxygenation. The blood is withdrawn from a large vein in the body and passes through a pumping mechanism, and then through a device that puts oxygen into the blood and removes carbon dioxide from the blood. The blood is then returned to the body and circulated in such a way as to sustain life.


Question: What is the definition of radial artery?

Answer: Radial Artery: The radial artery is a blood vessel that carries oxygen-rich blood in the forearm. You can feel the pulse of the radial artery by feeling the inside of the wrist underneath the base of the thumb.


Question: What is the definition of Holter monitor?

Answer: Holter Monitor: A small recorder (monitor) that monitors for abnormal heartbeats. It is attached to electrodes on your chest. It records the heart's rhythm continuously for 24 to 48 hours. After the monitor is removed, the heart's beats are counted and analyzed by a technician with the aid of a computer. Your doctor can learn if you are having irregular heartbeats, what kind they are, how long they last, as well as what may cause them.


Question: What is the definition of idiopathic?

Answer: Idiopathic: When the cause of a disease or process is not known.


Question: What is the definition of coronary arteries?

Answer: Coronary Arteries: Network of blood vessels that branch off the aorta to supply the heart muscle with oxygen-rich blood. There are two main coronary arteries: the right and the left.


Question: What is the definition of flutter?

Answer: Flutter: One form of rapid heartbeat, often involving the top part of the heart, called the atria.


Question: What is the definition of cardiac rehabilitation?

Answer: Cardiac Rehabilitation: A structured program of education and activity guided toward lifestyle modification, increasing functional capabilities and peer support.


Question: What is the definition of mortality rate?

Answer: Mortality Rate: The percentage of deaths associated with a disease or medical treatment.


Question: What is the definition of hydrogenation?

Answer: Hydrogenation: A process used to harden unsaturated liquid vegetable oils into saturated fats.


Question: What is the definition of leaflets?

Answer: Leaflets: Thin pieces of tissue or flaps that make up a valve.


Question: What is the definition of exercise stress test?

Answer: Exercise Stress Test: A test used to provide information about how the heart responds to stress. It usually involves walking on a treadmill or pedaling a stationary bike at increasing levels of difficulty, while the electrocardiogram, heart rate, and blood pressure are monitored.


Question: What is the definition of hyperlipidemia?

Answer: Hyperlipidemia: High levels of fat in the blood, such as cholesterol and triglycerides.


Question: What is the definition of occlusion?

Answer: Occlusion: Blockage.


Question: What is the definition of Wolff Parkinson White syndrome?

Answer: Wolff Parkinson White Syndrome ( WPW): WPW is an abnormal conduction pathway that can sometimes cause an arrhythmia. People with WPW have more than one electrical conduction pathway in their heart (accessory pathways). These electrical impulses set up a short circuit causing the heart to beat rapidly and conduct impulses in both directions.


Question: What is the definition of silent ischemia?

Answer: Silent Ischemia: Inadequate supply of oxygen-rich blood to the heart that does not cause symptoms such as chest pain.


Question: What is the definition of subvalvular aortic stenosis?

Answer: Subvalvular Aortic Stenosis: A narrowing of the flow of blood below the aortic valve in the left ventricle. It is usually caused by a membrane or thickening in the muscle in this area.


Question: What is the definition of Sestamibi exercise stress test?

Answer: Sestamibi Exercise Stress Test ( Sestamibi stress test, stress perfusion scan, stress Sestamibi): A diagnostic study, which uses a small amount of radioactive tracer, injected into the body, and a special camera, which detects the radiation, released by the substance to produce a computer image of the heart. Combined with exercise, the study can help determine if there is adequate blood flow to the heart at rest, as compared with activity.


Question: What is ventricular septal defect?

Answer: Ventricular Septal Defect: The right and left ventricles lie next to each other in the heart. The septum is the membranous wall that separates them. A ventricular septal defect is a hole in the septum.


Question: What is the definition of syncope?

Answer: Stroke: A sudden loss of brain function due to decreased blood flow to an area of the brain.


Question: What is the definition of transesophageal echocardiogram?

Answer: Transesophageal Echocardiogram ( TEE): An invasive imaging procedure that creates a picture of the heart's movement, valves, and chambers using high frequency sound waves that come from a small transducer passed down your throat. TEE provides clear images of the heart's movement because the transducer is close to the heart and limits interference from air in the lungs.


Question: What is the definition of tachycardia?

Answer: A heart rate above 100 beats per minute.


Question: What is the definition of thrombus?

Answer: Thrombus: A blood clot.


Question: What is the definition of sodium?

Answer: Sodium (salt): A mineral found in most of the foods we eat. The largest source of dietary sodium comes from sodium chloride or table salt. Intake of sodium tends to increase the retention of water.


Question: What is the definition of risk factor (for heart disease)?

Answer: Risk Factor (for heart disease): Traits people have that are linked to the development and progression of coronary artery disease. There are modifiable risk factors -- related to lifestyle and may be changed or controlled -- and non-modifiable risk factors -- related to aging and genetics and cannot be changed.


Question: What is aortic valve repair?

Answer: Aortic Valve Repair: The aortic valve is the last valve in the heart through which the blood travels prior to circulating in the body. When this valve is leaking or too tight, a surgeon may be able to repair the valve rather than replace it.


Question: What is the definition of angioplasty?

Answer: Angioplasty: An invasive procedure, during which a specially designed balloon catheter with a small balloon tip is guided to the point of narrowing in the artery. Once in place, the balloon is inflated to compress the fatty matter into the artery wall and stretch the artery open to increase blood flow to the heart.


Question: What is the definition of balloon angioplasty?

Answer: Balloon Angioplasty ( Percutaneous Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty or PTCA): A procedure used to clean out clogged heart arteries. A specially designed balloon catheter with a small balloon tip is guided to the point of narrowing in the artery. Once in place, the balloon is inflated to compress the fatty matter into the artery wall and stretch the artery open to increase blood flow to the heart.


Question: What is the definition of hibernating myocardium?

Answer: Hibernating Myocardium: Hibernating myocardium is heart muscle that does not pump normally due to decreased blood flow, usually from a coronary artery blockage or heart attack. If normal blood flow is restored (for example, by angioplasty of a coronary blockage), then the myocardium may be able to return to normal function.


Question: What is the definition of diuretic?

Answer: Diuretic: A drug that enables the kidneys to rid the body of excess fluid. It may also be referred to as a "water pill."


Question: What is the definition of intravascular?

Answer: Intravascular: Inside a blood vessel.


Question: What is the definition of diabetes?

Answer: Diabetes: A condition in which the body does not produce or respond to insulin (a hormone produced by your body, which allows blood sugar or glucose into your body's cells for energy).


Question: What is the definition of coronary artery disease?

Answer: Coronary Artery Disease (atherosclerosis): A build-up of fatty material, also called plaques, in the wall of the coronary artery that causes narrowing of the artery.


Question: What is arterial grafting?

Answer: Arterial Grafting: In patients who require coronary artery bypass graft surgery, arteries from other parts of the body can be used to provide the bypass grafts. This is known as arterial grafting. The alternative is to use vein grafts for coronary bypass surgery.


Question: What is the definition of IHSS?

Answer: IHSS: Idiopathic Hypertrophic Subaortic Stenosis is another term used synonymously with hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy ( HOCM). It is an inherited disease of the heart that causes thickening of the heart muscle and other changes to the heart that significantly impair its function. Although the disease is rare, IHSS is the most common cause of sudden cardiac arrest in young people. The term that is most frequently used now is HOCM.


Question: What is the definition of prophylaxis?

Answer: Prophylaxis: The prevention of disease.


Question: What is the definition of arrhythmia?

Answer: Arrhythmia: An irregular heartbeat.


Question: What is the definition of off pump heart surgery?

Answer: Off Pump Heart Surgery: Heart surgery done without the use of the cardiopulmonary bypass machine.


Question: What is the definition of coronary spasm?

Answer: Coronary Spasm: Repeated contractions and dilations of the coronary arteries, causing a lack of blood supply to the heart muscle. It may occur at rest and can even occur in people without significant coronary artery disease.


Question: What is the definition of myomectomy?

Answer: Myomectomy: A surgical procedure to remove abnormally thickened heart muscle.


Question: What is the definition of obesity?

Answer: Obesity: Excess fat due to eating more calories than used. It is usually defined having a body mass index ( BMI -- see above) of 30 or higher.


Question: What is the definition of edema?

Answer: Edema: Swelling; the accumulation of fluids, usually in the hands, feet, or abdomen.


Question: What is the definition of dobutamine stress echocardiogram?

Answer: Dobutamine Stress Echocardiogram ( Dobutamine echo): A procedure that involves infusing a medication (dobutamine) through an intravenous ( IV) line while you are closely monitored. This drug stimulates your heart allowing evaluation of heart and valve function at rest and with exertion, when you are unable to exercise on a treadmill or stationary cycle. An echocardiogram is then performed repeatedly during a stress test to evaluate the pumping chambers of the heart.


Question: What is the definition of cardiopulmonary resuscitation, or CPR?

Answer: Cardiopulmonary Resusitation ( CPR): A technique designed to temporarily circulate oxygenated blood through the body of a person whose heart has stopped. It involves assessing the airway; if necessary breathing for the person; determining if the person is without a pulse; and if necessary, applying pressure to the chest to circulate blood.


Question: What is the definition of maze procedure?

Answer: Maze Procedure: A surgical treatment for chronic atrial fibrillation. The surgeon makes multiple incisions in the atrium to block the path of the atrial fibrillation rhythm, thus allowing the normal heartbeat to occur.


Question: What is a nuclear scan?

Answer: Nuclear Scan: Nuclear imaging is a method of producing images by detecting radiation from different parts of the body after the administration of a radioactive tracer material.


Question: What is the definition of angina?

Answer: Angina (also called angina pectoris): Discomfort or pressure, usually in the chest, caused by a temporarily inadequate blood supply to the heart muscle. Discomfort may also be felt in the neck, jaw, or arms.


Question: What is the definition of catheter?

Answer: Catheter: A slender, hollow, flexible tube.


Question: What is the definition of carbon dioxide?

Answer: Carbon Dioxide: A gas created during metabolism, when the cells use oxygen to burn fat and release energy. The lungs release carbon dioxide when you breathe out.


Question: What is the definition of angiogenesis?

Answer: Angiogenesis: The spontaneous or drug-induced growth of new blood vessels. The growth of these vessels may help to alleviate coronary artery disease by rerouting blood flow around clogged arteries.


Question: What is the definition of atrioventricular node?

Answer: Atrioventricular ( AV) Node: A group of special cells located near the center of the heart that helps to regulate the heart rhythm.


Question: What is the definition of myocardial biopsy (cardiac biopsy)?

Answer: Myocardial Biopsy ( Cardiac biopsy): An invasive procedure to obtain a small piece of heart muscle tissue for analysis.


Question: What is the definition of pulse rate?

Answer: Pulse Rate: The number of heartbeats per minute. The resting pulse rate for an average adult is between 60 and 80 beats per minute.


Question: What is the definition of intravascular ultrasound?

Answer: Intravascular Ultrasound ( IVUS): An invasive procedure, performed along with cardiac catheterization. A miniature sound probe (transducer) on the tip of a catheter is threaded through the coronary arteries and, using high-frequency sound waves, produces detailed images of the interior walls of the arteries.


Question: What is the definition of pericardium?

Answer: Pericardium: The sac that surrounds the heart.


Question: What is the definition of hypotension?

Answer: Hypotension: Low blood pressure.


Question: What is the definition of platelets?

Answer: The plaque builds up and narrows the artery Platelets: Components of blood that aid in clotting.


Question: What is the definition of head upright tilt test?

Answer: Head Upright Tilt Test ( HUT, tilt table test, head-up tilt test): A test used to determine the cause of fainting spells. The test involves being tilted at different angles for a period of time. Heart rhythm, blood pressure, and other measurements are evaluated with changes in position.


Question: What is the definition of carotid artery?

Answer: Carotid Artery: A vessel that supplies the brain with oxygenated blood.


Question: What is the definition of septum?

Answer: Septum: The muscular wall separating the right and left sides of the heart.


Question: What is the definition of pericardiocentesis (pericardial tap)?

Answer: Pericardiocentesis (pericardial tap): An invasive procedure that involves using a needle and catheter to remove fluid from the sac around the heart. The fluid may then be sent to a lab for tests to look for signs of infection or cancer.


Question: What is the definition of metabolic exercise stress test?

Answer: Metabolic Exercise Stress Test (also called metabolic stress test): A test used to measure the performance of the heart and lungs while they are under physical stress. The test involves walking on a treadmill or pedaling a stationary bike at increasing levels of difficulty, while being closely monitored.


Question: What is the definition of ventricular rupture?

Answer: Ventricular Rupture: An area of the muscular wall of the heart that weakens and ruptures, usually due to a heart attack. If this happens, then blood from within the heart can leak into the pericardium. This is a medical emergency and usually requires urgent surgery.


Question: What is the definition of mitral insufficiency?

Answer: Mitral Insufficiency: A condition where the mitral valve does not fully close during heart contraction, allowing blood from the left ventricle to leak back into the left atrium.


Question: What is the definition of tricuspid valve?

Answer: Tricuspid Valve: The tricuspid valve is the valve that separates the right atrium from the right ventricle and prevents blood from flowing back into the right atrium during contraction of the ventricle.


Question: What is the definition of hypertension?

Answer: Hypertension: High blood pressure.


Question: What is ablation?

Answer: Biopsy: Removal and analysis of a tissue sample.


Question: What is the definition of homocysteine?

Answer: Homocysteine: An amino acid. High levels of homocysteine are a risk factor for coronary artery disease.


Question: What is bundle branch block?

Answer: Bundle Branch Block: Normally, the electrical impulse travels down both the right and left bundle branches at the same speed and the ventricles contract at the same time. If there is a block in one of the branches, it's called a bundle branch block. A bundle branch block causes one ventricle to contract just after the other ventricle, reducing the overall efficiency of contraction.


Question: What is the definition of arteries?

Answer: Arteries: Blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart.


Question: What is the definition of bicuspid-valve?

Answer: Bicuspid Valve: A valve with two leaflets (cusps) instead of three.


Question: What is the definition of biopsy?

Answer: Biopsy: Removal and analysis of a tissue sample.


Question: What is the definition of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors?

Answer: Angiotensin- Converting Enzyme Inhibitors ( ACE inhibitors): A group of drugs used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure. ACE inhibitors block a specific enzyme ( ACE or angiotensin-converting enzyme) that retains salt in the kidney and can cause heart and blood pressure problems. ACE inhibitors have been shown to decrease the risk of dying from a heart attack or heart failure.


Question: What is the definition of antihypertensive?

Answer: Antihypertensive: A drug used to treat high blood pressure.


Question: What is the definition of calcium-channel blocker?

Answer: Calcium- Channel Blocker: A drug that reduces spasm of the blood vessels, lowers blood pressure, and controls angina; it acts by selectively blocking the uptake of calcium by the cells.


Question: What is the definition of blood pressure?

Answer: Blood Pressure: The force exerted in the arteries by blood as it circulates. It is divided into systolic (when the heart contracts) and diastolic (when the heart is filling) pressures.


Question: What is the definition of capillaries?

Answer: Capillaries: Tiny blood vessels connecting arteries to veins. These blood vessels carry oxygen and nutrients to individual cells throughout the body.


Question: What is the definition of premature ventricular contraction?

Answer: Premature Ventricular Contractions ( PVCs): An irregular heartbeat in which the lower chambers of the heart (the ventricles) beat before they are supposed to.


Question: What is the definition of patency rate?

Answer: Patency Rate: The likelihood that a vessel will remain open.


Question: What is the definition of atrial myxoma?

Answer: Atrial Myxoma: A myxoma is a benign tumor of the heart. It resides in the atrial chamber and causes symptoms when its growth produces a tumor so large it obstructs blood flow through the heart chambers. Treatment of atrial myxoma is surgical removal of the tumor.


Question: What is the definition of pericarditis?

Answer: Pericarditis: Pericarditis is an inflammation of the pericardium. The pericardium is the sac around the heart.


Question: What is the definition of intracardiac tumor?

Answer: Intracardiac Tumor: An intracardiac tumor can be any tumor of the heart, either malignant or benign. The most common tumor of the heart is a benign atrial myxoma.


Question: What is the definition of atherosclerosis?

Answer: Atherosclerosis ("hardening of the arteries"): The process whereby abnormal deposits of lipids, cholesterol, and plaque build up, leading to coronary artery disease and other cardiovascular problems.


Question: What is the definition of atria?

Answer: Atria: The upper chambers of the heart. ( Atrium refers to one chamber of the heart).


Question: What is the definition of annulus?

Answer: Annulus: A ring of tough fibrous tissue that is attached to and supports the leaflets of the heart valve.


Question: What is the definition of clubbing?

Answer: Clubbing: An abnormality where the ends of the fingers and toes enlarge and the nails curve; often it is related to an inadequate oxygen-rich blood supply, however it can be hereditary and completely normal.


Question: What is the definition of cholesterol?

Answer: Cholesterol: A fatty substance made by the body and found in some foods.


Question: What is the definition of bradycardia?

Answer: Bradycardia: A slow heart rate.


Question: What is the definition of cardiac catheterization?

Answer: Cardiac Catheterization: A heart procedure used to diagnose heart disease. During the procedure, a catheter (inserted into an artery in your arm or leg) is guided to your heart, contrast dye is injected, and X-rays of the coronary arteries, heart chambers, and valves are taken.


Question: What is the definition of atrial septal defect?

Answer: Atrial Septal Defect: An abnormal hole located in the walls between the two atria. Tiny defects called patent foramen ovale are present in up to 30% of people and are of no consequence except in unusual circumstances. Moderate size to larger size defects should be corrected and may require heart surgery, though there are now devices that can close the hole without open heart surgery.


Question: What is the definition of atrium?

Answer: Atrium: The top chamber of the heart. There are two atria -- the left and the right, divided by a muscular wall, called the septum. The atrium contracts before the ventricle to allow optimal filling of the ventricle.


Question: What diseases can Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) cause other than mono?

Answer: EBV is best known for causing mononucleosis, but less often it can lead to other diseases, including: Ear infections and diarrhea in children Guillain- Barre syndrome Certain cancers, including Burkitt's lymphoma and cancers of the nose and throat Studies also show a link between EBV and multiple sclerosis ( MS), but more research is needed to determine if the virus can lead to MS.


Question: How is your activity restricted if you're recovering from an Epstein-Barr virus infection?

Answer: There are some rare complications of mono, so see your doctor if you or your child has any of these symptoms: Sudden, sharp pain on the left side of the belly, which could mean a problem with your spleen Very little urine, a sign of dehydration Trouble breathing or swallowing -- call 911 immediately Also call if your symptoms don't go away after 4 to 6 weeks.


Question: How can an Epstein-Barr virus infection be prevented?

Answer: No vaccine can protect you against the EBV virus. The best way to avoid catching it is to stay away from anyone who has mono. Don't share any items, including glasses, silverware, and toothbrushes, with someone who is infected. Also avoid kissing or having sex with an infected person.


Question: How do you protect yourself from catching mono?

Answer: No vaccine can protect you against the EBV virus. The best way to avoid catching it is to stay away from anyone who has mono. Don't share any items, including glasses, silverware, and toothbrushes, with someone who is infected. Also avoid kissing or having sex with an infected person.


Question: How common is Epstein-Barr virus?

Answer: Even though Epstein- Barr virus ( EBV) isn't a household name, you've probably been infected without knowing it. Lots of people carry the virus but don't get sick.


Question: How does mono, or Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), spread?

Answer: The virus is found in saliva, so you can catch mono from kissing someone who's infected. You can also get it from drinking from the same glass or using an infected person's toothbrush. It's also found in blood and semen, so it's possible to get mono from sex, a blood transfusion, or an organ transplant. You don't have to be sick to pass the virus to someone else. EBV stays in your body long after you get over mono. The virus can become active again months or years later, making you contagious once more.


Question: How is mono diagnosed?

Answer: It's hard to tell whether you have mononucleosis just by your symptoms. Fever, fatigue, and sore throat could also be signs of other illnesses, like the flu or a cold. See your doctor for an exam to learn for sure what's making you sick. He might find signs that you have mono, such as an enlarged spleen, an organ in your belly that filters blood. Your doctor will also check to see if you have a swollen liver and white patches on your tonsils. You may also need to get some blood tests.


Question: What are symptoms of Epstein-Barr virus  infection?

Answer: If you do get symptoms, most likely you'll have: Fatigue Fever Lack of appetite Rash Sore throat Swollen glands in the neck Weakness and sore muscles Although you should start feeling better in 2 to 4 weeks, the fatigue can stick around much longer.


Question: How does the Epstein-Barr virus spread?

Answer: The virus is found in saliva, so you can catch mono from kissing someone who's infected. You can also get it from drinking from the same glass or using an infected person's toothbrush. It's also found in blood and semen, so it's possible to get mono from sex, a blood transfusion, or an organ transplant. You don't have to be sick to pass the virus to someone else. EBV stays in your body long after you get over mono. The virus can become active again months or years later, making you contagious once more.


Question: What are the symptoms of mono?

Answer: Once you're infected with EBV, symptoms can take 4 to 6 weeks to show up. When they do, they're often mild, especially in young children. Kids' symptoms may be more like those of a cold or flu. Teens often have more obvious symptoms of mono. If you do get symptoms, most likely you'll have: Fatigue Fever Lack of appetite Rash Sore throat Swollen glands in the neck Weakness and sore muscles Although you should start feeling better in 2 to 4 weeks, the fatigue can stick around much longer. You may still feel tired a couple of months later.


Question: What are other disease caused by the Epstein-Barr virus?

Answer: EBV is best known for causing mononucleosis, but less often it can lead to other diseases, including: Ear infections and diarrhea in children Guillain- Barre syndrome Certain cancers, including Burkitt's lymphoma and cancers of the nose and throat Studies also show a link between EBV and multiple sclerosis ( MS), but more research is needed to determine if the virus can lead to MS.


Question: How long does it take to recover from an Epstein-Barr virus infection?

Answer: If you do get symptoms, most likely you'll have: Fatigue Fever Lack of appetite Rash Sore throat Swollen glands in the neck Weakness and sore muscles Although you should start feeling better in 2 to 4 weeks, the fatigue can stick around much longer. You may still feel tired a couple of months later.


Question: What are common symptoms of allergies in children?

Answer: For instance, if your child has a mild allergy, such as hay fever, you can expect symptoms such as: Watery, runny eyes Runny nose Sneezing Nasal congestion These symptoms can make your child feel bad, but it's not life-threatening. But sometimes a child can have what's known as anaphylaxis, a severe allergic reaction that needs immediate medical treatment. Many cases are caused by food allergies, medications, or insect stings. Do you know what to watch for?


Question: What happens during anaphylaxis?

Answer: Lungs: Trouble breathing or noisy breathing Coughing, wheezing Sneezing Congestion Tightness in the lungs Hoarseness Heart and Blood Vessels Chest pain Low blood pressure Weak, rapid pulse Dizziness, fainting Skin Pale or flushed skin Hives or welts Itchy skin Sweating Mouth Swelling of the throat, face, lips, or tongue Stomach and Digestion Abdominal pain Nausea, vomiting Diarrhea The person's airways narrow and their throat swells, which can make it hard to breathe. Their blood vessels widen, making their blood pressure fall, sometimes to dangerous levels. Anaphylactic reactions usually happen fast. Symptoms often become the most serious within 3 to 30 minutes of exposure to the allergy trigger. Quicker reactions are usually more severe.


Question: How can I split up homework so my child with ADHD doesn't get bored or inattentive?

Answer: Does your child start strong, then sputter out? Split up assignments so she doesn't have to do it all at once. Instead of a solid hour, have her tackle three 20-minute sessions with playtime or a snack in between. Or switch subjects: math for 20 minutes, then English for another 20, then back to math. She'll struggle less, and her work may improve.


Question: Is it ok to reward a child with ADHD for doing simple tasks like finishing their homework?

Answer: They're not bribes. It's OK to reward your child when she does a good job. A little encouragement can go a long way.


Question: What are some questions to ask your doctor about different treatments for psoriasis?

Answer: It's important to know about the side effects of any treatment your doctor recommends. Some questions you may want to ask include: What serious side effects should I watch for and when should I call for medical help? What can I do to help manage the side effects of my medication? What should I know about being in the sun? What are my options if I can't handle the side effects of this drug? Is it safe if I'm thinking about getting pregnant?


Question: How does light therapy treat psoriasis?

Answer: Ultraviolet light targeted at problem areas can help control psoriasis outbreaks. But it should be done only under a doctor's care. Common side effects are minor burns and a higher risk of skin cancer. It also can make you more sensitive to sunlight. With photochemotherapy, which includes a drug that makes the ultraviolet light work better, short-term side effects also include nausea, itching, and red skin.


Question: What are side effects of salicylic acid for psoriasis?

Answer: Salicylic acid: This helps get rid of dead skin cells. It also may irritate your skin. If you use it on your scalp over a long period, it could make your hair weak and possibly fall out.


Question: What are side effects of anthralin for psoriasis?

Answer: Anthralin: This medicine makes skin cells grow more slowly and helps get rid of scales. The most common side effect is skin irritation. It also can stain your skin as well as clothing, fabric, and even hard surfaces. It's best to let it stay on your skin only for a short time and then wash it off.


Question: What are the side effects of biologics to treat psoriasis?

Answer: Biologics: These are strong drugs made from living cells. Because they affect your immune system, they can raise your chances of a serious infection, including tuberculosis.


Question: What can treat psoriasis?

Answer: These include topical treatments you put on your skin, light therapy, pills, shots, and infusions (drugs put directly into your bloodstream with a small needle and a tube). Each comes with its own possible side effects. Your doctor can help you weigh the risks and benefits of any treatment.


Question: What are the side effects of retinoids that treat psoriasis?

Answer: When treatments like creams, ointments, shampoos, and phototherapy don't do enough to control your psoriasis, you may need to take medicine. Retinoids: These drugs made from vitamin A can raise your chances of liver problems. Your doctor will do regular blood tests to watch for that. They also bring a risk of birth defects, so women who take them shouldn't get pregnant for at least 3 years afterward. Other possible side effects include: Depression Dry, cracked skin or lips Hair loss Joint pain Nosebleeds Trouble seeing in the dark Methotrexate: This drug, usually taken as a pill or shot, slows the growth of skin cells and eases inflammation.


Question: What are side effects of coal tar for psoriasis?

Answer: Coal tar: This thick, black byproduct of coal can slow down the growth of skin cells, ease inflammation, help with itching and scaling, and make your skin look better. But it also can irritate and dry out your skin and make you more sensitive to sunlight.


Question: What are side effects of light therapy (phototherapy) for psoriasis?

Answer: Common side effects are minor burns and a higher risk of skin cancer. It also can make you more sensitive to sunlight. With photochemotherapy, which includes a drug that makes the ultraviolet light work better, short-term side effects also include nausea, itching, and red skin.


Question: What are the side effects from psoriasis skin treatments that have vitamin D in them?

Answer: Vitamin D: Topical treatments that have vitamin D, like calcipotriene and calcitriol, can irritate your skin.


Question: What are side effects of tazarotene for psoriasis?

Answer: Tazarotene: This is a retinoid cream, which means it's made from vitamin A. It can irritate your skin and make you more sensitive to sunlight. It's not recommended for women who are pregnant or plan to get pregnant because it can raise your chances of having a child with certain birth defects.


Question: What are some topical treatments that treat psoriasis?

Answer: These are medicines you rub on your skin, including your scalp. If you have mild or moderate psoriasis, one of these may be all you need to control it. In more severe cases, you may use one along with other treatments.


Question: What are side effects of corticosteroids for psoriasis?

Answer: Corticosteroids: These powerful drugs ease inflammation and can help a lot. But you shouldn't use them over a long period. They can make your skin thinner and may stop working as well.


Question: What are questions that I can ask for my doctor about psoriasis treatments and its side effects?

Answer: Some questions you may want to ask include: What serious side effects should I watch for and when should I call for medical help? What can I do to help manage the side effects of my medication? What should I know about being in the sun? What are my options if I can't handle the side effects of this drug? Is it safe if I'm thinking about getting pregnant?


Question: How can you use retinoids for warts?

Answer: How to use: Follow your doctor's instructions for applying retinoids to warts. Creams may need to be used for a few months before warts disappear.


Question: How are retinoids used for acne?

Answer: How to use: Smooth a pea-sized amount of retinoid cream over the skin once a day 20 to 30 minutes after washing your face.


Question: How can you use retinoids for wrinkles?

Answer: How to use: Apply to your face, neck, chest, hands, and forearms at least twice a week.


Question: What else do you need to know about using retinoids for warts?

Answer: What else you need to know: When you first use retinoids, you may notice redness, peeling of your skin, or worsening of your acne.


Question: How can retinoids help with acne?

Answer: If you have moderate to severe acne that hasn't gotten better with other treatments, a retinoid may help. When spread on the skin, retinoids can unclog pores, allowing other medicated creams and gels to work better. They also reduce acne outbreaks by preventing dead cells from clogging pores. By clearing acne and reducing outbreaks, they may also reduce the formation of acne scars. Retinoid pills treat oil production, bacteria that cause acne, and inflammation.


Question: How can retinoids help with warts?

Answer: Doctors may prescribe retinoids for warts, particularly when other treatments have failed. Retinoid cream works by disrupting the wart's cell growth.


Question: What do you need to know about using retinoids for acne?

Answer: What else you need to know: When you first use retinoids, you may notice redness, peeling of your skin, or worsening of your acne. You can minimize this by using the product every other day until your body gets used to it, or mix it with moisturizer.


Question: How can retinoids help with wrinkles?

Answer: Tretinoin was the first retinoid approved by the FDA to treat wrinkles. This prescription retinoid works by increasing the making of new collagen. It also stimulates new blood vessels in the skin, giving skin a rosy appearance, fading age spots, and reducing precancerous skin spots called actinic keratosis. Tretinoin also may help prevent more serious effects of ultraviolet radiation. Over-the-counter retinoids may not work as well as tretinoin in reducing wrinkles, but they can improve the appearance of sun-damaged skin.


Question: How do integrase strand transfer inhibitors (INSTIs) help treat HIV and AIDS?

Answer: Atazanavir or ATV ( Reyataz) Darunavir or DRV ( Prezista) Fosamprenavir or FPV ( Lexiva) Indinavir or IDV ( Crixivan) Lopinavir + ritonavir, or LPV/r ( Kaletra) Nelfinavir or NFV ( Viracept) Ritonavir or RTV ( Norvir) Saquinavir or SQV ( Invirase, Fortovase) Tipranavir or TPV ( Aptivus) These stop HIV from making copies of itself by blocking a key protein that allows the virus to put its DNA into the healthy cell's DNA.


Question: How do protease inhibitors (PIs) help treat HIV and AIDS?

Answer: Delavirdine or DLV ( Rescripor) Doravirine, or DOR ( Pifeltro) Efavirenz or EFV ( Sustiva) Etravirine or ETR ( Intelence) Nevirapine or NVP ( Viramune) Rilpivirine or RPV ( Edurant) These drugs block a protein that infected cells need to put together new HIV virus particles.


Question: How does maraviroc (MVC) help treat HIV and AIDS?

Answer: Enfuvirtide, or ENF or T-20 ( Fuzeon) Maraviroc, or MVC ( Selzentry), also stops HIV before it gets inside a healthy cell, but in a different way than fusion inhibitors. It blocks a specific kind of "hook" on the outside of certain cells so the virus can't plug in.


Question: What is bradycardia?

Answer: If your doctor says you or a loved one has bradycardia, a resting heart beat that's less than 60 beats per minute, it's only part of the diagnosis. Your doctor will also want to figure out which type it is. She may talk to you about these kinds: sinus bradycardia, sick sinus syndrome, and heart block. What kind of treatment you get, if any, will depend on how mild or serious your case is, along with which kind you have.


Question: How do dietitians combat cancer-related fatigue?

Answer: Make an appointment with a dietitian. A registered dietitian provides suggestions to work around any eating problems that may be interfering with proper nutrition (such as early feeling of fullness, swallowing difficulty, or taste changes). A dietitian can also suggest ways to maximize calories and include proteins in smaller amounts of food (such as powdered milk, instant breakfast drinks, other commercial supplements, or food additives).


Question: How can someone being alert to the warning signs of fatigue combat cancer-related fatigue?

Answer: Be alert to the warning signs of fatigue. Fatigue warning signs may include tired eyes, tired legs, whole-body tiredness, stiff shoulders, decreased energy or a lack of energy, inability to concentrate, weakness or malaise, boredom or lack of motivation, sleepiness, increased irritability, nervousness, anxiety, or impatience.


Question: How does meeting calorie needs combat cancer-related fatigue?

Answer: Cancer-related fatigue is often made worse if you are not eating or drinking enough or if you are not eating the right foods. Maintaining good nutrition can help you feel better and have more energy. The following are strategies to help improve nutritional intake: Meet your basic calorie needs. The estimated calorie needs for someone with cancer is 15 calories per pound of weight if your weight has been stable. Add 500 calories per day if you have lost weight. Example: A person who weighs 150 lbs. needs about 2250 calories per day to maintain his or her weight; active people need 20 calories per pound of weight to maintain their body weight.


Question: How does breathing evenly and wearing comfortable clothes combat cancer-related fatigue?

Answer: Beverages containing caffeine do NOT count.


Question: How does immobility cause cancer-related fatigue?

Answer: Immobility can reduce endurance and decondition muscles.


Question: How do vitamins combat cancer-related fatigue?

Answer: Take a vitamin supplement if you are not sure you are getting enough nutrients. A recommended supplement would be a multivitamin that provides at least 100% of the recommended daily allowances ( RDA) for most nutrients. Note: vitamin supplements do not provide calories, which are essential for energy production. So vitamins cannot substitute for adequate food intake. Also, some doctors are strict about vitamin intake during chemotherapy so be sure to discuss what vitamins should be taken.


Question: How does hypothyroidism cause cancer-related fatigue?

Answer: If the thyroid gland is under-active (hypothyroidism), metabolism may slow down so that the body does not burn food fast enough to provide adequate energy. This is a common condition in general, but may happen after radiation therapy to the lymph nodes in the neck or some targeted therapies. Symptoms include feeling cold and unexplained weight gain, in addition to severe fatigue.


Question: How does evaluating your energy level combat cancer-related fatigue?

Answer: Evaluate your energy level. Think of your personal energy stores as a "bank." Deposits and withdrawals have to be made over the course of the day or the week to balance energy conservation, restoration and expenditure. Keep a diary for one week to identify the time of day when you are either most fatigued or have the most energy. Note what you think may be contributing factors.


Question: How do hormonal changes cause cancer-related fatigue?

Answer: Pain.


Question: How does anemia cause cancer-related fatigue?

Answer: Hemoglobin is a substance in the red blood cells that enables the blood to transport oxygen through the body. When the blood can't transport enough oxygen to the body, fatigue can result.


Question: When should someone with cancer-related fatigue talk to their doctor?

Answer: Be sure to let your doctor or nurse know if you have: Increased shortness of breath with minimal exertion Uncontrolled pain Inability to control side effects from treatments (such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or loss of appetite) Uncontrollable anxiety or nervousness Ongoing depression


Question: How does overworking yourself cause cancer-related fatigue?

Answer: When the blood can't transport enough oxygen to the body, fatigue can result.


Question: How does protein combat cancer-related fatigue?

Answer: Include protein in your diet. Protein rebuilds and repairs damaged (and normally aging) body tissue. The estimated protein needs are 0.5 to 0.6 grams of protein per pound of body weight. Example: A 150 lb. person needs 75 to 90 grams of protein per day; active people need 1-1.5 grams of protein per pound of body weight. The best sources of protein include foods from the dairy group (8 oz. milk = 8 grams protein) and meats (meat, fish, or poultry = 7 grams of protein per ounce).


Question: What are some other ways to combat cancer-related fatigue?

Answer: Plan ahead and organize your work. Change storage of items to reduce trips or reaching. Delegate tasks when needed. Combine activities and simplify details. Schedule times to rest. Balance periods of rest and work. Rest before you become fatigued. Remember that frequent, short rests are beneficial. Pace yourself. A moderate pace is better than rushing through activities. Alternate sitting and standing.


Question: How does limiting work combat cancer-related fatigue?

Answer: Limit work that requires reaching over your head. Use long-handled tools, store items lower and delegate activities. Limit work that increases muscle tension (isometric work).


Question: How can friction cause blisters?

Answer: You can get blisters when something rubs against your skin, like a tool handle or a new pair of shoes. Unlike corns and calluses, which show up after rubbing that's gone on for a long time, friction blisters come from brief, intense contact on a small area.


Question: What is a blister?

Answer: Whether your shoes are too tight or you touched a hot stove, the result is all too familiar: a painful pocket of skin that's filled with fluid. A single blister like that is usually easy to treat at home, but if you see signs of infection, it's time to call your doctor.


Question: How should I get help for my friend who has suicidal thoughts?

Answer: If you think your friend is in danger, stay with him or her if you can. Don'tleave a suicidal person alone. Call 911, take the person to an emergency room, or contact a crisis hotline like 1-800- SUICIDE (1-800-784-2433) or 1-800-273- TALK (1-800-273-8255). Get support from other friends and family members, even if your friend asks you not to. It's too serious to keep secret -- and you can't keep your friend safe all on your own. If your friend has been seeing a mental health professional (therapist, counselor, psychologist, social worker, or psychiatrist), call them and make them aware of the situation.


Question: Can I use baking soda to style my hair?

Answer: Style your hair: Some people skip shampoo and use a mixture of baking soda and apple cider vinegar on their hair. Over time this will make a bad hair day worse. Like your scalp, your hair is naturally acidic. Baking soda might shine your locks up at first, but over time it'll cause frizz, tangles, and breaks.


Question: How can baking soda treat insect bites and stings?

Answer: Treat insect bites and stings: While it isn't good for everyday use on your skin, it can soothe the redness, itching, and stinging that are signs of a mild reaction to an insect bite. Many over-the-counter creams contain baking soda. You can also make your own paste of one part baking soda to three parts water. This also works for poison ivy and rashes.


Question: How can I use baking soda to keep my mouth healthy?

Answer: Keep your mouth healthy: Brushing your teeth with toothpaste that has baking soda can hold off tooth decay and keep your gums and mouth in good shape. A half-teaspoon of baking soda mixed in a glass of water can also freshen your breath.


Question: How can I use baking soda to help chemotherapy work?

Answer: Help chemotherapy work: While no scientific studies have found that baking soda cures cancer, research does show that it can help some cancer treatments work better. Some chemotherapy drugs need alkaline conditions. Others become more toxic in an acid environment. That's why some doctors suggest using some form of sodium bicarbonate for best treatment results. Your oncologist can tell you if your drugs will get a boost from baking soda. Mouth and throat changes are common chemo side effects. If this happens to you, rinse your mouth three times daily with a mixture of 1 cup warm water, 1/4 teaspoon baking soda, and 1/8 teaspoon salt, followed by a rinse with plain water.


Question: How can I use baking soda to control odors?

Answer: Control odors: Most bad smells come from either strong acids (think sour milk) or bases (like spoiled fish). When you add baking soda and change the p H balance, the odors in your fridge or your carpet come into a neutral state. Try it for yourself.


Question: Can I use baking soda boost my athletic performance?

Answer: Boost athletic performance: You might hear about runners drinking a large amount of baking soda before a race or meet. This is called soda loading, and it can make you sick if you get too much too often.


Question: How can I use baking soda to calm indigestion?

Answer: You can use it to: Calm indigestion: Add 1/4 teaspoon of baking soda to a glass of water to zap acid in your stomach. But acid doesn't cause all kinds of indigestion, so if your symptoms don't improve after 2 weeks, call your doctor. Don't take baking soda within 2 hours of other medications. When the baking soda lowers stomach acid, it can slow the rate at which your body absorbs some medicines and change the way others work. Don't give it to a child under 6 unless your pediatrician tells you to.


Question: What is the treatment for an enlarged liver (hepatomegaly)?

Answer: How you get treated for your enlarged liver depends on what's causing it. For example, if drinking too much alcohol is the source of the problem, you need to stop to avoid damage. Talk to your doctor to get advice on quitting. If you have an underlying disease, medication or other types of treatments may help.


Question: What causes abnormal growths relative to an enlarged liver (hepatomegaly)?

Answer: This could be from: Obesity An infection (such as hepatitis B or hep C) Some medications or alcohol Toxins Autoimmune disease (your body's immune system attacks healthy tissue) Metabolic syndrome (a group of risk factors for heart disease that includes high blood pressure, blood sugar, and cholesterol levels, and belly fat) Genetic disorders that cause fat, protein, or other substances to build up Abnormal growths may cause an enlarged liver. These may be due to: Cysts Tumors that start in or spread to the liver A problem with blood flow.


Question: What are the symptoms of an enlarged liver (hepatomegaly)?

Answer: Most of the time, if you have a slightly enlarged liver, you won't notice any symptoms. If it's severely swollen, though, you may have: A feeling of fullness Discomfort in your belly Depending on the cause of your enlarged liver, you may notice symptoms like: Yellowing of the skin or eyes (jaundice) Fatigue and weakness Nausea Weight loss Your doctor will do a physical exam to see if your liver is larger than it should be.


Question: What should I know about an enlarged liver (hepatomegaly)?

Answer: !s_sensitive, chron ID: $('article embeded_module[type=video][align=top]:eq(0)').attr('chronic_id'), continuous Play: true, cp Options: { flyout: true }, display Ads: true, mode: 'in-article', sticky: true }) }); }); } else { $(function(){ $('.responsive-video-container').remove(); }); } If your doctor tells you that you've got an enlarged liver, it means it's swollen beyond its normal size. There's usually another condition that's causing it, such as hepatitis. You have a lot of treatment choices, but you first need to find out the source of the problem. Getting treated is important. Your liver has a lot of big jobs to do. Just to name a few key ones, it helps clean your blood by getting rid of harmful chemicals that your body makes. It makes a liquid called bile, which helps you break down fat from food. And it also stores sugar, called glucose, which gives you a quick back-up energy boost when you need it. Depending on what's causing your liver to swell, you could end up with long-term damage if you don't get treated.


Question: What is masturbation?

Answer: !s_sensitive, chron ID: $('article embeded_module[type=video][align=top]:eq(0)').attr('chronic_id'), continuous Play: true, cp Options: { flyout: true }, display Ads: true, mode: 'in-article', sticky: true }) }); }); } else { $(function(){ $('.responsive-video-container').remove(); }); } Masturbation is the self-stimulation of the genitals to achieve sexual arousal and pleasure, usually to the point of orgasm (sexual climax). It is commonly done by touching, stroking, or massaging the penis or clitoris until an orgasm is achieved. Some women also use stimulation of the vagina to masturbate or use "sex toys," such as a vibrator.


Question: Is masturbation normal?

Answer: Masturbation is only considered a problem when it inhibits sexual activity with a partner, is done in public, or causes significant distress to the person. It may cause distress if it is done compulsively or interferes with daily life and activities.


Question: Is masturbation harmful?

Answer: In general, the medical community considers masturbation to be a natural and harmless expression of sexuality for both men and women. It does not cause any physical injury or harm to the body, and can be performed in moderation throughout a person's lifetime as a part of normal sexual behavior.


Question: How are chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and left-sided heart failure linked?

Answer: It's not directly related to COPD. But the two conditions may influence each other. For example, low oxygen in the blood from COPD may put extra strain on your heart, which worsens left-sided heart failure. And too much fluid in your lungs from heart failure can make breathing even harder if you have COPD.


Question: How can you tell if it is chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) or heart failure that is causing breathing problems?

Answer: Your doctor may give you: Physical examination: Listening to your lungs and heart, and looking at the veins in your neck, can help your doctor tell the difference between COPD and heart failure. Chest X-ray: Heart failure may cause fluid in your lungs to be visible on a chest X-ray. With COPD, your lungs are usually clear or may look like they're over-inflated. Brain natriuretic peptide ( BNP) test: This hormone is usually at high levels in your blood if you have heart failure, whether or not you also have COPD. Pulmonary function tests: Doctors can use breathing tests to diagnose COPD. Echocardiogram: An ultrasound test of your heart that can evaluate the heart chambers, valves, and pumping strength. Cardiac enzymes: This blood test can help diagnose a heart attack or too much strain on your heart. Every case is different. Some people have severe COPD and only mild heart failure. Others have severe heart failure and only mild COPD. In these cases, the more severe condition is more likely to be the cause of breathing symptoms. If COPD and heart failure are equally severe, doctors must make their best guess as to which condition is causing your symptoms. To make things even more complicated, COPD and heart failure can at times act up at the same time. For example, if you have worsening heart failure symptoms that cause rapid breathing, this can make COPD symptoms worse, as well. If your doctor can't tell which condition causes your shortness of breath, he'll probably treat both together.


Question: What are drugs associated with alcohol interactions?

Answer: Left-sided heart failure is most often caused by high blood pressure or coronary artery disease.


Question: What are treatments for severe shortness of breath from chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) or heart failure?

Answer: If your doctor can't tell which condition causes your shortness of breath, he'll probably treat both together. Treatments for COPD focus on your lungs and your airways, the branching network of tubes inside the lungs. The main treatments for COPD are bronchodilators, which are inhaled medicines that help open the airways. Heart failure treatments curb the workload on your heart and help prevent unhealthy growth of heart muscle. Several types of medicines do this. If you have severe shortness of breath from COPD and heart failure, you may get other treatments, as well: Corticosteroids, such as prednisone or methylprednisolone ( Solu- Medrol), which can improve breathing in people with COPD Antibiotics if any bacterial infection may be part of the problem Supplemental oxygen Non-invasive positive pressure ventilation, a form of machine-assisted breathing Mechanical ventilation, or temporary life support, through a breathing tube IV medicines to ease heart strain And, if you have either condition and smoke, quitting should be a top priority for your health. If you have both COPD and heart failure, a team of doctors will probably treat you, including a primary care physician, a cardiologist, and a pulmonologist, who is a doctor specializing in lung conditions.


Question: Mixing alcohol and medications can increase the risk of what complications?

Answer: If you have severe shortness of breath from COPD and heart failure, you may get other treatments, as well: Corticosteroids, such as prednisone or methylprednisolone ( Solu- Medrol), which can improve breathing in people with COPD Antibiotics if any bacterial infection may be part of the problem Supplemental oxygen Non-invasive positive pressure ventilation, a form of machine-assisted breathing Mechanical ventilation, or temporary life support, through a breathing tube IV medicines to ease heart strain And, if you have either condition and smoke, quitting should be a top priority for your health.


Question: Can bisphosphonates help strengthen the bones of people with advanced prostate cancer?

Answer: Bisphosphonates to Strengthen Bones These drugs help reduce or delay problems such as fractures caused by bone metastases in prostate cancer.


Question: Can radiation therapy help treat bone pain in people with advanced prostate cancer?

Answer: Radiation Therapy for Bone Pain Radiation is given to reduce bone pain in advanced prostate cancer. External beam radiation therapy: Radiation using a high-energy X-ray machine that directs radiation to the painful bones Radioisotopes: Radiation therapy delivered through an injection that targets and attacks the area of bone containing cancer. Strontium 89 is a commonly used radioisotope. Radium 223 ( Xofigo) is a radioisotope used to treat metastatic prostate cancer, which improves pain and prolongs survival.


Question: Can treatment for advanced prostate cancer cause infertility?

Answer: Most treatments for prostate cancer cause infertility. Several techniques can help preserve fertility, but they must be done before cancer treatment has been initiated. If you want to preserve your fertility, tell your doctor before undergoing any treatment for prostate cancer.


Question: What side effects could I have from calcium channel blockers for heart failure?

Answer: Side effects of calcium channel blockers include: Drowsiness Increased appetite Swelling Contact your doctor if these side effects are persistent or severe.


Question: How do calcium channel blockers treat heart failure?

Answer: As a result, calcium channel blockers relax blood vessels and increase the supply of blood and oxygen to the heart, while reducing its workload. Calcium channel blockers may be used to treat heart failure caused by high blood pressure when other medications to lower blood pressure do not work.


Question: When should you call the doctor about the side effects of taking calcium channel blockers for heart failure?

Answer: Weight gain Breathing difficulty Coughing or wheezing Irregular or slow heartbeat Skin rash When taking calcium channel blockers: Ask your doctor if you need to avoid eating grapefruit or drinking grapefruit juice while taking your calcium channel blocker.


Question: How should I take calcium channel blockers?

Answer: Calcium channel blockers include: Norvasc Plendil Cardizem Covera Isoptin Calcium channel blockers should be taken with food or milk. Follow the medication label directions. The number of doses you take each day, the time allowed between doses, and how long you need to take it will depend on the type of medication prescribed and on your condition.


Question: What are examples of calcium channel blockers?

Answer: Calcium channel blockers include: Norvasc Plendil Cardizem Covera Isoptin Calcium channel blockers should be taken with food or milk.


Question: When should you call your doctor right away about side effects of calcium channel blockers?

Answer: If you have any of the following side effects, contact your doctor right away. Weight gain Breathing difficulty Coughing or wheezing Irregular or slow heartbeat Skin rash When taking calcium channel blockers: Ask your doctor if you need to avoid eating grapefruit or drinking grapefruit juice while taking your calcium channel blocker.


Question: How should I take calcium channel blockers for heart failure?

Answer: Calcium channel blockers include: Norvasc Plendil Cardizem Covera Isoptin Calcium channel blockers should be taken with food or milk. Follow the medication label directions. The number of doses you take each day, the time allowed between doses, and how long you need to take it will depend on the type of medication prescribed and on your condition.


Question: What are other guidelines for taking calcium channel blockers for heart failure?

Answer: While taking calcium channel blockers, have your blood pressure checked regularly, as advised by your doctor. Keep all appointments with your doctor and the laboratory so that your response to the drug can be monitored. While taking this medication, your doctor may tell you to take and record your pulse daily. Your provider will tell you how rapid your pulse should be. If your pulse is slower than advised, contact your doctor about taking your calcium channel blocker that day.


Question: Who is commonly affected by myasthenia gravis?

Answer: Though anyone can develop myasthenia gravis, those most likely to do so are women between age 20 and 40 or men between age 50 and 70. If a woman with myasthenia gravis gives birth, the baby may have some temporary, and potentially life-threatening, muscle weakness (neonatal myasthenia) because of antibodies that have transferred from the mother's bloodstream. Typically, during the baby's first weeks of life, the antibodies are cleared from the baby's circulation and the baby develops normal muscle tone and strength.


Question: What are the first symptoms of myasthenia gravis?

Answer: The disease most commonly affects muscles that control eye and eyelid movement, so the first symptoms you notice may be eyelid drooping and/or blurred or doubled vision. The majority will go on to develop weakness in other muscle groups within one or two years.


Question: What percentage of people with myasthenia gravis patients have thymoma?

Answer: Although most thymomas are benign (not cancerous), the thymus is usually removed (thymectomy) to prevent the potential spread of cancer. In fact, thymectomy seems to improve symptoms of myasthenia gravis in some patients, even if no tumor is present.


Question: is myasthenia gravis an autoimmune disorder?

Answer: Myasthenia gravis is considered to be an autoimmune disorder. In an autoimmune disease, some of the body's antibodies (special proteins in your body that are supposed to be programmed to fight foreign invaders such as bacteria, viruses, or fungi) mistake a part of your own body as foreign, resulting in its destruction. In the case of myasthenia gravis, antibodies block, attack or destroy the acetylcholine receptors needed for muscle contraction.


Question: Should you drink coffee for liver health?

Answer: And coffee may not be for everyone. Even though it might help your liver, it may raise your chances of other conditions.


Question: Who is more likely to be affected by some chemicals in coffee that may raise cholesterol level or blood pressure?

Answer: For example, some chemicals in it may raise your cholesterol level or blood pressure. That could be a caution sign for: People with high blood pressure Children and teens Older adults No matter how good coffee might be for you, the key to taking care of your liver is still your lifestyle.


Question: Iâm trying to watch my portion sizes. Whatâs the best way to do that at restaurants?

Answer: At restaurants: Ask for half or smaller portions. Eyeball your appropriate portion, set the rest aside, and ask for a doggie bag right away. If you have dessert, share.


Question: Iâm trying to watch my portion sizes. Whatâs the best way to do that at the supermarket?

Answer: At the supermarket: Beware of mini-sized snacks -- small crackers, cookies, and pretzels. Most people end up eating more than they realize, and the calories add up. Choose foods packaged in individual serving sizes. If you like to eat ice cream out of the carton, pick up ice cream sandwiches or other individual-size servings.


Question: Iâm trying to watch my portion sizes. Whatâs the best way to do that at home?

Answer: At home: Use smaller dishes at meals. Serve food in the right portion amounts, and don't go back for seconds. Put away any leftovers in separate, portion-controlled amounts. Consider freezing the portions you likely won't eat for a while. Never eat out of the bag or carton. Don't keep platters of food on the table; you are more likely to "pick" at it or have a second serving without realizing it.


Question: Whatâs the best way to find out what a serving size looks like?

Answer: The best way to determine the amount of food in a serving is to look at the Nutrition Facts label and measure it. For example, fill a measuring cup with the proper-sized portion of vegetables, rice, etc. and then empty it onto a plate. That will help you learn what these serving sizes look like.


Question: How long does an organ transplant surgery take?

Answer: It depends on what organ you're getting, along with many other things. For example, you may spend less time in the operating room if you've already had surgery on that organ or a previous transplant. Transplant surgery times differ a lot. A few examples include: Liver, 5 to 8 hours Kidney, 4 to 5 hours Pancreas, 2 to 4 hours Both kidney and pancreas, 5 to 7 hours Your surgeon can give you a better estimate, taking into account your specific circumstances.


Question: Who are the members of an organ transplant surgery team?

Answer: Of course, you'll have your transplant surgeon and transplant doctor. Other team members typically can include: The transplant coordinator An intensive care or critical care specialist An infectious disease doctor Nurses A pharmacist A dietitian A physical therapist An occupational therapist A psychiatrist or psychologist A social worker A financial coordinator Smaller transplant centers may have fewer people.


Question: Should I whiten my teeth if I'm under 16 or have pregnancy issues?

Answer: Bleaching is not recommended in children under the age of 16. This is because the pulp chamber, or nerve of the tooth, is enlarged until this age. Teeth whitening under this condition could irritate the pulp or cause it to become sensitive. Teeth whitening is also not recommended in pregnant or lactating women.


Question: What are some teeth whitening product safety warnings?

Answer: Some whitening products you get through dentists' offices as well as professionally applied (in-office) bleaching products have the American Dental Association ( ADA) Seal of Acceptance, which tells you that the product meets ADA guidelines for safety and effectiveness. Currently, only dentist-dispensed home-use products containing 10% carbamide peroxide and office-applied products containing 35% hydrogen peroxide have this seal. Over-the-counter bleaching products are not endorsed by the ADA, because the organization believes that professional consultation is important to ensuring safe and effective use. No whitening products using lasers are on the ADA's list of accepted products. Several whitening toothpastes available in drugstores have received the seal, too. You can find a list at www.ada.org. Not all manufacturers seek the ADA's Seal of Acceptance. This is a voluntary program that requires considerable expense and time on the part of a manufacturer. Just because a product doesn't have the seal does not necessarily mean that the product isn't safe and effective. Teeth whiteners are not drugs and therefore aren't regulated by the FDA.


Question: Should I whiten my teeth if I have sensitive teeth and allergies?

Answer: Individuals with sensitive teeth and gums, receding gums, and/or defective restorations should consult with their dentist prior to using a tooth-whitening system. Anyone allergic to peroxide (the whitening agent) should not use a bleaching product.


Question: How do over-the-counter whitening strips and gels work?

Answer: Over-the- Counter Whitening Strips and Gels Whitening gels are clear, peroxide-based gels applied with a small brush directly to the surface of your teeth. Instructions vary depending on the strength of the peroxide. Follow the directions on the product carefully. Initial results are seen in a few days and final results are sustained for about four months. Whitening strips are very thin, virtually invisible strips that are coated with a peroxide-based whitening gel. The strips should be applied according to the instructions on the label. Initial results are seen in a few days and final results are sustained for about four months.


Question: How do teeth whitening processes vary?

Answer: First, your dentist can perform an oral exam and consider your complete medical history, which can be helpful in determining if bleaching is an appropriate course of treatment based on the type and extent of stains, and the number and location of restorations. Your dentist can then better match the type of stain with the best treatment, if appropriate, to lighten those stains. When your dentist does it, he'll likely want to see you a couple of times to clear up any questions about the directions, to make sure the customized tray fits properly, to check your gums for signs of irritation, and to generally see how the process is working. With over-the-counter bleaching products, you're on your own.


Question: What teeth whitening systems are available?

Answer: Over-the- Counter Whitening Strips and Gels Whitening gels are clear, peroxide-based gels applied with a small brush directly to the surface of your teeth.


Question: How do teeth whitening costs vary?

Answer: Over-the-counter bleaching systems are the least expensive option, with in-office whitening being the costliest.


Question: How do whitening rinses work?

Answer: Like most mouthwashes, they freshen breath and help reduce dental plaque and gum disease. But these products also include ingredients, such as hydrogen peroxide in some, which whiten teeth. Manufacturers say it may take 12 weeks to see results. You just swish them around in your mouth for 60 seconds twice a day before brushing your teeth. However, some experts say that rinses may not be as effective as other over-the-counter whitening products. Because a whitening rinse is only in contact with the teeth for such a short time -- just two minutes a day compared to 30 minutes for many strips -- it may have less of an effect.


Question: How do whitening toothpastes work?

Answer: Whitening Toothpastes All toothpastes help remove surface stains, because they contain mild abrasives. Some whitening toothpastes contain gentle polishing or chemical agents that provide additional stain removal effectiveness. Whitening toothpastes can help remove surface stains only and do not contain bleach; over-the-counter and professional whitening products contain carbamide peroxide or hydrogen peroxide that helps lighten the color deep in the tooth. Whitening toothpastes can lighten the tooth's color by about one shade. In contrast, prescription strength whitening conducted in your dentist's office can make your teeth three to eight shades lighter.


Question: What are some risks associated with teeth whitening?

Answer: The two side effects that occur most often with teeth whitening are a temporary increase in tooth sensitivity and mild irritation of the soft tissues of the mouth, particularly the gums. Tooth sensitivity often occurs during early stages of the bleaching treatment. Tissue irritation most commonly results from an ill-fitting mouthpiece tray rather than the tooth-bleaching agent. Both of these conditions usually are temporary and disappear within 1 to 3 days of stopping or completing treatment.


Question: What are toothpastes for sensitive teeth?

Answer: These toothpastes usually contain potassium nitrate or strontium chloride. These chemical compounds, which can take up to 4 weeks to offer relief, help tooth sensitivity by blocking pathways through the teeth that attach to nerves inside the teeth. To help people on a quest for pearly whites, many whitening toothpastes are now being marketed for everyday use.


Question: What does tartar control toothpaste do?

Answer: There are many tartar control toothpastes on the market, most of which contain fluoride. Everyone has a layer of bacteria on their teeth called plaque. If plaque isn't removed promptly with proper oral hygiene, it hardens into tartar. This hard-to-remove deposit can build up on your teeth and under your gums, ultimately leading to gum disease. There are a variety of ingredients used in toothpaste to help prevent the buildup of tartar on the teeth. Chemical compounds, including pyrophosphates and zinc citrate, are often added and have been proven effective. Additionally, some tartar control toothpastes contain an antibiotic called triclosan, which kills some of the bacteria in the mouth. Certain toothpastes containing multiple anti-plaque agents have been demonstrated to be even more effective at tartar control than varieties with only one plaque fighter.


Question: What are the symptoms of a hiatal hernia?

Answer: Symptoms may include: Heartburn, regurgitation Difficulty swallowing Chest pain radiating from below the breastbone A bloated feeling after eating Shortness of breath You have chest pain; you may have angina (chest pain associated with heart disease), or you may be having a heart attack.


Question: When should you call a doctor about a hiatal hernia?

Answer: Symptoms may include: Heartburn, regurgitation Difficulty swallowing Chest pain radiating from below the breastbone A bloated feeling after eating Shortness of breath You have chest pain; you may have angina (chest pain associated with heart disease), or you may be having a heart attack. Get medical care immediately. You are being treated for heartburn or hiatal hernia, and you feel sudden chest or stomach pain, have difficulty swallowing, are vomiting, or are unable to have a bowel movement or pass gas; you may have a hernia that has become obstructed or strangulated, which are emergencies. Seek medical help without delay. Your hiatal hernia is accompanied by chronic heartburn; stomach acid is repeatedly burning your esophagus, which can lead to esophagitis (an inflamed and ulcerated esophagus), esophageal bleeding or scarring, or cancer. See your health care provider as soon as possible.


Question: What are some guidelines in managing blood sugar levels?

Answer: Here are some guidelines: Check your blood sugar every 4 hours. Test for ketones if you have type 1 diabetes and your sugar level is above 240mg/d L -- or if your doctor tells you to. Ketones are a form of waste that people with type 1 make when they're under stress (like an illness). Call the doctor if you find ketones in your urine. Depending on how sick you are, he may suggest you go to the emergency room. Check your temperature regularly. Drink liquids if you can't keep solid food down. Have one cup of liquid every hour while you're awake to prevent dehydration. If you can't hold down liquids, you may need to go to the emergency room or hospital. Don't stop taking insulin, even if you can't eat solid food. You may need to eat or drink something with sugar so that your blood sugar doesn't drop too low. You may need to stop taking medicines by mouth for type 2 diabetes while you're sick. Check with your doctor if you're not sure what to do. If you need an over-the-counter drug to control symptoms like cough and nasal congestion, ask your doctor or pharmacist for a list of sugar-free products.


Question: When should someone call the doctor about their blood sugar?

Answer: Contact the doctor's office if: Your blood sugar stays higher than 180 mg/d L or lower than 70 mg/d L. You can't keep liquids or solids down. You have a temperature over 101 F. You have diarrhea or are vomiting.


Question: When should I call my doctor if I have diabetes and I'm sick?

Answer: Contact the doctor's office if: Your blood sugar stays higher than 180 mg/d L or lower than 70 mg/d L. You can't keep liquids or solids down.


Question: How does retinitis pigmentosa allow someone to lose their peripheral vision?

Answer: Retinitis Pigmentosa ( RP): This genetic disorder damages the retina, the part of the eye that senses light. Night blindness is one of the first symptoms. You might also have a hard time telling different colors apart. Over time, you'll notice changes in your peripheral vision. You can get this condition at any age, but it usually strikes teens and young adults. Most people who have it are legally blind by age 40.


Question: How can I prevent losing peripheral vision?

Answer: There's no research to suggest it. But you can take control of some of the conditions that put you at risk. For example, glaucoma can strike anyone. If you're African- American, over age 60, or have a family history of glaucoma, you have an even greater chance of getting it. But you can lower your chances: See your doctor for a complete eye exam every 2 to 4 years, beginning at age 40.


Question: How does glaucoma make someone lose peripheral vision?

Answer: Most often, it's a side effect of other medical conditions. Two of these, glaucoma and retinitis pigmentosa, are among the most common. Glaucoma: This disease is caused by the buildup of fluid and pressure in the eye. It can damage the nerve that carries information from the eye to the brain. When this happens, you may lose your peripheral vision. Over time, you could lose all of your eyesight. Luckily, doctors can prevent vision loss if they find your glaucoma early.


Question: How do doctors diagnose a loss of  peripheral vision?

Answer: He'll place a bowl-shaped device in front of your face. You'll wear a patch over one eye so each can be tested separately. While you look straight ahead, lights flash at different points around the bowl. You'll press a button when you see lights, without turning your head from side to side. If you have an eye disease, your doctor might repeat this test every 6 to 12 months to measure changes in your vision. People who have a higher risk for glaucoma should also be tested regularly.


Question: How is the loss of peripheral vision treated?

Answer: If you lose your peripheral vision because of glaucoma or RP, you can't reverse it. But you can be proactive and slow down or stop the damage. For instance, if you do yoga, avoid a pose makes you be upside down because that has been shown to increase eye pressure. If your doctor finds and treats glaucoma early, he can give you medications to reduce the eye pressure that causes it. If that doesn't work, he might recommend surgery. Studies show that vitamin A may slow down vision loss caused by RP. Your doctor can help you find ways to cope with poor eyesight and may be able to slow or stop the damage.


Question: What can lower my risk of losing peripheral vision?

Answer: If you play sports or work around the house, wear protective glasses or goggles to protect your eyes. Eye injuries can cause glaucoma. Studies show that regular exercise can help reduce eye pressure, the main cause of this eye disorder. If you work out, you can also lower your high blood pressure, cutting your risk even more.


Question: Is peripheral vision loss treatable?

Answer: But you can be proactive and slow down or stop the damage. For instance, if you do yoga, avoid a pose makes you be upside down because that has been shown to increase eye pressure. If your doctor finds and treats glaucoma early, he can give you medications to reduce the eye pressure that causes it. If that doesn't work, he might recommend surgery.


Question: How do doctors identify peripheral vision loss?

Answer: He'll place a bowl-shaped device in front of your face. You'll wear a patch over one eye so each can be tested separately. While you look straight ahead, lights flash at different points around the bowl. You'll press a button when you see lights, without turning your head from side to side. If you have an eye disease, your doctor might repeat this test every 6 to 12 months to measure changes in your vision.


Question: Can you prevent peripheral vision loss?

Answer: But you can take control of some of the conditions that put you at risk. For example, glaucoma can strike anyone. If you're African- American, over age 60, or have a family history of glaucoma, you have an even greater chance of getting it. But you can lower your chances: See your doctor for a complete eye exam every 2 to 4 years, beginning at age 40.


Question: Why do you lose peripheral vision?

Answer: Most often, it's a side effect of other medical conditions. Two of these, glaucoma and retinitis pigmentosa, are among the most common.


Question: How can I protect myself from peripheral vision loss?

Answer: If you play sports or work around the house, wear protective glasses or goggles to protect your eyes. Eye injuries can cause glaucoma. Studies show that regular exercise can help reduce eye pressure, the main cause of this eye disorder. If you work out, you can also lower your high blood pressure, cutting your risk even more.


Question: Why do I need urine potassium test?

Answer: Your doctor may do it if your potassium was checked from a blood sample and your results showed something may not be right. A second test with urine can help her narrow down the reasons. Your doctor also may order the urine test if: You take diuretics or are on dialysis You have kidney or adrenal gland problems For the test, you'll need to either pee into a cup once or collect several samples over 24 hours and save them in a larger container.


Question: What happens after surgery for thyroid cancer?

Answer: Thyroid surgery usually takes place without problems. You will have pain in the neck area, but medicine will help. You may also have a hoarse voice or sore throat for a few days. There may be a drain from the site of the incision. It helps with healing and will later be removed. You'll either stay overnight at the hospital, or go home the day of the surgery. Again, it depends on what type of operation you have and well you do. You'll get instructions about how to take care of yourself after the operation, and when to see your doctor for follow-up. Other cancer treatments may begin soon after the operation.


Question: What happens before surgery for thyroid cancer?

Answer: Before surgery, you'll have lab and imaging tests. They help the doctor know as much as possible about the cancer. You may have other exams or tests to check your overall health. You'll be given instructions about what to eat and drink, and what medicines to take the day before your operation.


Question: What happens during surgery for thyroid cancer?

Answer: You'll probably have general anesthesia during your surgery. This means you will sleep through the whole thing. The doctor may make one or more incisions (cuts) in your neck, but that will depend on which type of surgery you have.


Question: What kind of surgeries are there for thyroid cancer?

Answer: A thyroidectomy is when all or part of the thyroid gland is removed. A lobectomy is when one of the two lobes of your thyroid is removed. If the cancer has spread, lymph nodes in the neck area may be taken out, as well. Tissue around the thyroid gland may also be removed, depending on the size and location of the tumor.


Question: How can non-verbal communication help if you have trouble speaking with Parkinson's disease?

Answer: Use expressions and gestures to communicate. Non-verbal communication can help people with speech difficulties actually speak better by: Reducing the frustration and stress of being unable to communicate. Alleviating the pressure to speak. Allowing the person to be more relaxed and come across in a more understandable manner.


Question: What is an example of how much fiber to get for breakfast?

Answer: This sample menu gives you 37 grams of fiber from tasty, familiar foods: Breakfast: One serving of whole-grain bran flake cereal (5 grams of fiber), topped with half a sliced banana (1.5 grams of fiber) and skim milk Morning snack: 24 almonds (3.3 grams of fiber) mixed with a quarter cup of raisins (2 grams of fiber) Lunch: Turkey sandwich made with 2 slices of whole wheat bread, plus lettuce, and tomato (about 5 grams of fiber total), and an orange (3.1 grams of fiber) Afternoon snack: Yogurt topped with half a cup of blueberries (2 grams of fiber) Dinner: Grilled fish served alongside a salad made with romaine lettuce and shredded carrots (2.6 grams of fiber), plus half a cup of cooked spinach (2.1 grams of fiber), and half a cup of lentils (7.5 grams of fiber) After-dinner treat: 3 cups popped popcorn (3.5 grams of fiber) var s_context; s_context= s_context || {}; s_context['wb.modimp'] = 'vidfloat'; if(webmd.useragent && webmd.useragent.ua.type === 'desktop'){ webmd.ads2.disable Initial Load(); webmd.ads2.disable Ads Init = true; $(function() { webmd.p.pim.increment(); $('.responsive-video-container').insert After('.module-social-share-container'); require(['video2/1/responsive-player/video-loader'], function(video Loader) { video Loader.init({ autoplay: webmd.useragent.ua.type === 'desktop' && !


Question: What are benefits to fiber?

Answer: !s_sensitive, chron ID: $('article embeded_module[type=video][align=top]:eq(0)').attr('chronic_id'), continuous Play: true, cp Options: { flyout: true }, display Ads: true, mode: 'in-article', sticky: true }) }); }); } else { $(function(){ $('.responsive-video-container').remove(); }); } Fiber helps you manage your weight, lowers cholesterol, keeps your bowel movements regular, and reduces your odds of getting diabetes and heart disease. So check food labels and choose "high fiber" foods -- which contain more than 5 grams of fiber per serving -- whenever possible. Consider fiber supplements if you continually fall short of getting what you need through what you eat. Examples include psyllium and methylcellulose. You can also make simple substitutions to replace low-fiber foods with fiber-rich dishes. Use this chart to help you put more fiber on your plate.


Question: How does exercise boost endorphins in people with fibromyalgia?

Answer: Studies show that exercise can help restore the body's neurochemical balance and that it triggers a positive emotional state. Not only does regular exercise slow down the heart-racing adrenaline associated with stress, but it also boosts levels of natural endorphins -- pain-fighting molecules that may be responsible for the well-known "runner's high." Endorphins help to reduce anxiety, stress, and depression.


Question: What are low-impact exercises that help develop flexibility and ease stress in people with fibromyalgia?

Answer: They include: Yoga -- an ancient form of exercise that can reduce stress and relieve muscle tension or pain by improving range of motion and strength. Practicing yoga for fibromyalgia when you are feeling tense or anxious may help you reduce stress and the risk of injury when you are on the job or at home. Tai chi -- a series of flowing, graceful movements that can give you a good workout and stretching regimen. Studies show that tai chi participants also increase their sense of balance, can bend easier, and are better able to do household tasks. With fibromyalgia, tai chi can help keep your back flexible and strong. Pilates -- a form of exercise that focuses on breathing and strengthening the torso muscles. With Pilates, an instructor will help you work on postural muscles that are essential to supporting the spine.