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Microbiology
What types of organisms are included in the study of microbiology
The following organisms are studied in microbiology prions viruses, bacteria, fungi and parasites
What other areas besides pathogenesis are included in study of microbiology
The study of microbiology also include food production, biotechnology, genetic engineering and gene therapy
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Distinguish among food microbiology biotechnology and genetic engineering technology
Food microbiology is the use and study of microbes in production cheese Biotechnology the production of antibiotics, vitamins, and food supplements. Genetic engineering uses microbes to produce insulin or to replace defective genes.
Differentiate between parasites and hosts.
A parasite lives in or on another organism and causes damage to the organism host is the organism on which the parasite lives
Where do we find microorganisms?
Microorganisms are found everywhere on earth except in materials that have been made steril
Antone Van leeuwenhoek
in 1670s invented the microscope and he was the first to observe animalcules or microbes
Edward Jenner
In 1790 he recognized the deck seems to protect people from viral disease he was a developer of the smallpox vaccination
Ignaz Semmelweis
By 1850 he was promoting hand washing to disinfectant them
Louis Pasteur
He convinced the scientific community that the theory of spontaneous generation was false and he develop vaccines for anthrax and rabies
What was the basis for the belief in spontaneous generation
Spontaneous generation was thought to occur because sterilized cultures left out overnight were found to be contaminated the following morning
Microbes in are generally organized into seven taxa. Name the taxa.
The seven taxa are : kingdom ,phylum, class, order, family, genus and species.
Of the seven taxa, which two are generally used to identify a given microbe?
Genus and species.
List to fundamentally different types of cells. Why are they different?
The two types of cells are prokaryotes and eukaryotes. Prokaryotes bacteria and Arcadia have no nucleus . Eukaryotes have a true nucleus.
What are organisms called when they have small differences that are still in the same genius or species?
Similar organisms are called biovars if they vary in biological properties, or serovard if they differ immunologically.  Strains are any type of variation
What is the purpose of a differential stain?
A differential stain at two or more stains to bacterial specimens causing different types of bacteria to change into different colors
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List and advantage of electron microscope be over a light microscope
Viruses are too small 0.03 0.3 µ is seen by light microscope electron microscopes can resolve down to about 0.002
What is pH what do high and low pHs mean . What pH is neutral
PH is the measurement of the acid or alkali properties of a molecule. High pH above 8 is basic and low pH below 6 are acidic. The neutral point is pH 7
What general function do enzymes accomplish ?
Enzymes cause the breakdown of nutrients into smaller molecules that are combined by other enzymes into complex materials required by the cell. Enzymes also derived energy from chemicals for use by the growing cell.
What are the workers of a cell
The workers of the cell are the enzymes which are polymers of amino acids.
Wood a organism that contains 1 million base pairs and DNA is more likely to have 1000 or 10,000 jeans?
The organism would be more likely to have 1000 jeans, because an average gene is about 1000 base pairss in length
Bacillus morphology
Bacillis this is a rod shaped
Coccus morphology
The coccus Is sapherical shaped
Coccus morphology
The coccus Is sapherical shaped
Vibrio morphology
The spirochete is helical shaped.
Pleomorohic
The pleomorphic can be more than one shape
To find the following cell clusters diplo tetra, staphylo,strepto.
Diplo,Means linking of cells in twos,tetra means linking in fours, staphylo means clusters like grapes,strepto,means in chains like a necklace.
Explain the functions of the cell or cytoplasmic membrane .
The cytoplasmic membrane defines the inside and outside of the cell. It contains protein transporters at pump desirable chemicals into the cell using the cells energy resources. It also prevents undesirable chemicals from entering the organism.
Describe the structure of peptidiglycan.
The structure of Peptidoglycan is like a fish net because the long polymers of the Glycan are cross-linked by shorter pieces of peptides.
Name to biologically active items that destroys bacterial cell wall.
Two biologically active items that destroys cell wall are lysozyme and penicillin.
What's structural component is you need to gram-negative bacteria?
And outer membrane is you need to gram-negative bacteria
What major chemical is unique to the structure of gram-negative bacteria.
Lipoplysaccharide is chemically unique to the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria.
How does Peptidoglycan  very between gram-positive and gram-negative organisms?
Gram-positive organisms have many layers of Peptidoglycan . Gram-negative organisms have only one or a few layers of Peptidoglycan.
What layer of Graham positive and gram-negative bacteria is the same. What Layer is completely different?
The cytoplasmic membrane is the same. The outer membrane is different because only gram-negative bacteria have one.
List of four steps of the Gram stain and the function of each.
Stain, crystal violet:2 fix the crystal violet with grams iodine so that is aggregates.3:wash the aggregates from the porous gram-negative bacteria with acetone alcohol 4:counterstain with saffranin .
What is the chemical makeup of the structure that coats a bacterium.
Polysaccharide is the coatings chemical makeup.
What is the function of the polysaccharide coating bacteria.
The coating makes the bacterium slippery so that white blood cells cannot capture and destroy it.
Distinguish the bacterial chromosomes from plasmids.
Bacteria on chromosome contains thousands of genes, including those required for replication and gene expression.they also contain plasmids, small pieces of DNA usually encoding  >50 genes. Plasmid's are often specialized (antibiotic coding).
Describe the cell cytoplasm.
The cytoplasmic compartment contains all the degraded and synthetic machinery to allow the cell to grow and make new copies of itself. It includes the cells DNA, RNA and proteins.
What are the sizes of a complete bacterial ribosome and it's two major components  in S units?
Prokaryotic ribosomes are 70 S one of each of 30 S and 50 S. eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S one each of 40S and 60S.
Why do some bacteria Harbor inclusions or granules?
The granules provide a energy source available when cells have a special energy need.
What are granules, or inclusions, composed?
Granules, or inclusions, are composed of polysaccharides or polyphosphates that contain much chemical energy.
What are the most environmentally stable of all known lifeforms? What genera produce them?
The most stable lifeforms are spores. Genera producing spores include gram- positive bacteria colstridium and bacillus.
What is a streak plate? What task does it accomplish?
The streak plate is a dish containing nutrient agar. It is used to grow individual cells in the colonies to obtain pure isolate.
What is a colony?
A colony results when a single cell is streaked onto a plate in well separated manner so that the progeny can grow into a clump until they're sufficiently numerous to be seen by the naked eye.
Why do we obtain isolated Colonies?
We obtain isolated colonies because they yield pure cultures in which every cell is identical, so the organism can be re-colonized
List for methods used in the identification of bacteria.
1 biochemical test; 2; immunological test; 3 genetic test; 4; direct DNA or RNA testing for organism specific sequences.
List possible bacterial appendages and their functions.
The flagella aid in motility;the pili
in gene transfer; and the fimbraie attach to a given site.
List of three major components of bacterial flagella.
The three major components of bacteria flagellum are the filament, hook , and Basil body.
How do bacteria produce a propelling force?
Bacteria produce a compelling force by rotating helical filament against their watery environment.
Name to possible benefits of motility to a pathogenic  organism.
Motility allows pathogens to spread ans to escape captured by cells of the immune system.
What benefit does chemotaxis confer upon a bacteria
Chemotaxis allows organisms to swim toward or away from chemicals.
List five organelles containing microbial eukaryotic cells.
Five organelles in the eukaryotic cells are nuclei,, endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, and vacuoles.
What is the defining characteristic of a eukaryotic cell?
Defining characteristic of the eukaryotes cell is the nuclei.
How can an antibody molecule be exocytosed?
For antibodies to be excised, they are packaged into a membrane vesicle that fuses with the cell membrane to form a pore through which the antibodies are released outside of the cell.
What is a lysome?
A lysome  is a eukaryotic organelle that is full of toxic chemicals and degradative
enzymes.
How do eukaryotic flagella and cilia move.
Eukaryotic flagella and cilia are organelles that contain nine pairs and two microtubules in a membrane. The whole structure beats back and forth.
How do bacterial flagella move?
Bacterial flagella protrude from the cell as a single, cubical filament and is composed of one protein with no membrane covering. The bacteria move by rotating this filament, which propels the bacteria like a boat propeller.
Explain the difference in the meaning of heterotroph and saprobe.
All fungi are Heterotrophs meaning they use performed (living or dead ) organic material nutritionally . Saprobes are fungi that require their nutrients to come specifically from dead or organic material.
List an important nonmedical roll of fungi.
Fungi break down organic material into forms that are reusable by other living things.
Define Buds
Buds are round cells that grow on the sides of mother cells until they are ready to divide as new cells.
Define Hyphane
Hyphane are long chains of connected cells.
Define Mycelia
Mycelia are fuzzy masses of hyphane (mold).
Describe the appearance of the following: yeast, molds, mushrooms.
Yeasts have single, round cells. Molds grow in long chains. Mushrooms are often seen on dead or decaying organic material. They have a sender stem and a rounded head with spores on top of it.
How do septate and aseptate differ?
Septate Hyphane  have cross walls separating individual cells. Aseptate hyphane  lack cross- walls.
What is the main function of fungal spores?
Spores allow widespread dissemination of the organisms.
What is the composition of fungal cell walls?
Fungal cell walls are composed of the polysaccharide chitin.
What is the major lipid of fungi that is usually not present in prokaryotic or human cells?
The major lipid of fungi is ergosterol.
Name the three groups of the kingdom .protista.
.
The three groups of the kingdom protista  are algae, Protozoa, and slime molds.
Characteristics of algae.
Algae are unicellular but can grow in large groups, such as seaweed.
What are the characteristics of Protozoa
Protozoa are unicellular protests that lack photosynthetic ability and use organelles of motility for both locomotion and food gathering.
What are the characteristics of slime molds .
Slime molds are much like fungi because he usually grow on dead matter and produce spores; they are unlike fungi, however, because some mold forms have flagella and pseudopodia.
What are the characteristics of Protozoa
Protozoa are unicellular protests that lack photosynthetic ability and use organelles of motility for both locomotion and food gathering.
Explain three types of protozoal locomotion.
Some protozoans moved by flagella or the shorter, but similar ,cilia structure. Pseudopia which are cell membrane extensions that move forward to attach to the surface so that the rest of the cell can be pulled to that position in a crawling motion.
What role does algae play in general marine life?
Algae along with organisms in plankton, use the suns energy to produce most of the organic material and oxygen available in the ocean.
What are algal cells made of ?
Algae cell walls are mainly composed of cellulose. Agar and pectin are also present. Members of the diatoms subgroup of Algie have a silicon cell wall similar to silicon found in glass and rocks.
How do algae obtain and use sunlight?
Algae obtain and use sunlight through the chlorophyll in organelles called chloroplasts that absorbs the energy in sunlight. The chlorophyll transfers the energy onto mitochondria that convert it into chemical energy in the form of ATP.
How are protozoans generally classified?
Protozoans are classified according to the locomotion apparatus. Flagellants have flagella; pseudopods have pseudopodia; ciliates have Cilia; and Sporozites have no organelles of locomotion.
How are protozoan groups commonly identified?
Protozoan groups are commonly identified by the locomotion apparatus, general shape and size, number of nuclei, and presence of cysts forms.
How do cellular and acellular slime molds differ?
Cellular slime mold grow into groups of individual cells, whereas acellular slime molds grow. Into Plasmodium, a giant cell containing many nuclei.
What must happen for a pathogen to be transmitted by a mosquito vector?
The pathogen must migrate to the mosquito salary gland and replicate.
How do lice remain attached to their hosts?
Lice remain attached by means of legs, claws, and teeth that are well adapted to grasping
Name a disease transmitted by Flea vectors.
Free vectors transmit plague .
How do Mites directly cause disease?
Mites cause disease by borrowing into the skin and introducing an intense allergic response.
Name two organisms, their diseases, and the tick vectors that spread them.
Dermacentor andersoni which transmits Rickettsia rickttsii, which causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever. Ixodes scapularis transmits Borrelia burgdorferi which causes Lyme disease.
Because viruses aren't capable of replicating outside of the host, they are called?
Obligate intracellular parasites.
What is the size of the largest virus?
Largest viruses are 1/25 the size of the smallest bacterium.
How does a bacterialphage penetrate the host cell wall?
In addition to the attachment factors they used to adhear to host cell, bacterial phages also often have a needlelike tube that they used to propel through the bacterial envelope and inject their nucleic acid inside the host cell.
What are bacterial viruses called?
Bacterial viruses are called bacteriophages or just phages.
Definition of capsomere?
Capsomere: A viral protein that forms the coat around the viral nucleic acid.
Definition of capsid.
The protein shell made of Capsomeres.
Definition of nucleocapsid.
Nucleocapsid; the capsid covering plus the nucleic acid.
Define envelope.
Envelope: an additional covering made of membrane from the host cell and viral proteins.
Define icosahedrons.
List the two main components of nucelocapsids .
The two main components of nucleocapsids are the capsid and nucleic acids.
What are non-enveloped viruses called?
Nonenveloped viruses are called me a naked viruses.
The placement of viruses into families depends upon which characteristics?
The placement of viruses into families depends upon structural features: what their general size and shape are, whether they are naked or enveloped, and if they're nucleic acid is DNA or RNA
What part of the envelope comes from the host cell and what part from the virus?
The membrane is from the host and the attachment proteins are from the virus.
What type of molecule in an envelope virus is necessary for attachment to the host cell?
A viral attachment protein that protrudes outside of the viral envelope is necessary for attachment to the host cell.
Absorption of the virus to the human cell depends upon what specific viral and cellular components?
Absorption depends on a viral attachment proteins and a cell receptor.
What are two types of penetration into the human cell.
Two types of penetration into the human cell are endocytosis and membrane fusion.
Where does DNA and RNA replication take place in human virus.
Replication takes place in the cell nucleus for DNA and in the cytoplasm for RNA.
Where does viral translation occur in the human cell?
Final translation occurs in the host cytoplasm.
How does the assembly of intact virons occur?
Proteins from the coating bind to each other and to the proper nucleic acid, enabling the Nucleocapsid to zip together without outside energy.
Describe how the release of virons can occur by cell lysis or budding.
A naked virus simply lyses to the cell to release virons; an enveloped virus acquires a membrane from the host as it passes through the cell membrane.
How many phages or Virons can be produced in a single growth cycle?
About 100 phages per bacterium and about 300,000 animal virons per animal cell can be produced in a single growth cycle.
What are the differences between the lytic and lysogenic viruses?
Lytic viruses kill the host cell by breaking  it open. Lysogenic viruses DNA integrates into the host cell : they then divide with the cell. If the host cell become sick lysogenic,viruses become lytic and escape the dying cell.
What are cytopathic effects?
Cytopathic affects result when a viral specimen is placed on human tissue cells in a culture media. Cytopathic effects refer to visable changes, microscopic or otherwise, in the cells resulting from viral infection.
What is plaque?
Plaque is a specific type of CPE where cells are killed so that loss of cells gives rise to a hole in the cell layer.
How is the inclusion body type of CPE observed?
Inclusion bodies are normally seen in the microscope as dark areas of viral material.
What are the resulting large cells called when many cells fuse together as a result of viral infection?
When many cells fuse together as a result of viral infection, a large cells are called syncytia or giant cells.
What changes occurred during transformation?
In transformation, viruses cause the cells to keep growing uncontrollably and pile up or form a tumor.
What do viruses do to the host DNA synthesizing machinery?
Viruses subvert the host cells machinery into making viruses rather than cellular materials.
What type of nucleic acid is in a virion?
The nucleic acid in a viron is either RNA or DNA , but not both.
Why is tumorigenesis only associated with DNA viruses or retroviruses ?
Tumorigenesis only occurs when the cells genes are altered to cause uncontrollable cell division . Only DNA can integrate into the cells chromosomes because the chromosome is DNA.
Describe the smallest biological agent that is replicated.
The smallest replicated biological agent is the prion: a protein that causes itself to be replicated by the way it folds.
What damage to prions do?
Abnormally folded prion proteins accumulate in the brain until the brain tissue is destroyed in the host dies.
What are the sixth most abundant elements in microbes?
The six most abundant elements in microbes are carbon, oxygen, nitrogen, hydrogen, phosphorus, and sulfur.
What are the sixth most abundant types of molecules in a living bacteria ?
The six most abundant types of molecules in living bacterium are water , proteins, RNA, carbohydrates, lipids, and DNA.
What is the most abundant component of living bacteria?
The most abundant component of living bacteria is water.
Define autotrophs.
Autotrophs: bacteria that can use carbon dioxide from the air hazard Carbon source.
Define heterotrophs.
Heterotrophs: bacteria that require their carbon source in an organic form, e.g. sugar or an amino acid.
Define Fastidious organisms.
Fastidious organisms: bacteria that do not produce their own vitamins, usually because they can acquire them from the host.
Define autotrophs
Auxotrophs: Mutant bacteria that aren't capable of synthesizing an organic molecule, such as a vitamin.
Define photoautotroph's
Photoautotrophs : bacteria that derive energy from light.
Define halophiles.
Halophiles:  bacteria that have adapted to growth in high - salt conditions.
Define Methanogens
Methanogens: Bacteria that derive energy from carbon dioxide and hydrogen to produce methane gas.
Define Chemoautotrophs.
Chemoautotrophs: bacteria that derive energy from rocks or minerals rather than sunlight or organic materials.
How are culture medias produced?
Agar is added to the culture broth, the entire mix is boiled to melt the agar, and the mix is poured into Petri dishes where it solidifies as it cools to room temperature.
Distinguish defined media from complex media.
The complete chemical contents of defined media is unknown because they're made of known chemicals. Complex media includes some components that are from a biological source, animal or plant, in which some of the consistent chemicals are not known.
Define selective media.
Selective media allows some organisms to grow well inhibiting others.
How are pure bacterial cultures obtained?
Pure bacterial cultures are obtained by streaking a sample of bacteria onto a petri dish so that the individual bacteria fall in well isolated positions. Bacteria are grown into colonies so that individual colonies can be recovered as pure cultures.
Name and define the technique used to work with microbial cultures.
Aseptic technique is used to work with microbial cultures. It means handling samples so they do not become contaminated from the outside.
Define differential media.
Differential media allow several kinds of organisms to grow, but the organisms appear differently; for example, the organisms might appear as different colors.
How does defusion assist a cell nutritionally?
Because of Brownian motion, nutrient molecules are constantly moving, so they make contact with the bacteria,pass through the outer layers, and diffuse to the bacteria's cytoplasmic membrane so the cell can transport them inside.
What prevents a bacterial cell from rupturing due to internal osmotic or Hydro static pressure?
The strength of the peptidoglycan layer prevents the bacterial cell wall from rupturing due to internal osmotic hydrostatic pressure.
Aerobes
aerobes: bacteria that grow in the presence of oxygen.
Facilitative anaerobes:
Bacteria that grow with or without oxygen.
Define Microaerophilies
Microaerophile bacteria that require reduce levels of oxygen.
Define Anarobes
Bacteria that fail to grow in the presence of oxygen.
Define Acudophiles
Bacteria that grow in acid environments.
Define Alkalophiles
Bacteria that grow in alkaline environments.
Define Obligate halophiles
Bacteria that cannot grow without salt .
Define Psychrophiles
Bacteria that thrive in cold temperatures.
Define Mesophiles
Bacteria that thrive in warm temperatures.
Define Thermophiles
Bacteria that thrive in hot temperatures.
Define Thermoduric bacteria
Bacteria that cannot grow at high temperatures, but which are also not killed by high temperatures.
Define Symbiosis
A relationship in which different organisms grow with one another.
Define Synergism
A relationship in which the total growth of two or more organisms is more than would have resulted had they grown independently.
Define Commensalism
A relationship in which one organism helps another that is unaffected itself.
Define antagonism;
A harmful relationship between two organisms.
Define normal flora:
The native microbes that an individual harbors without causing disease.
If one bacterium goes through four generations, how many bacteria will result?
Four generations of bacterium will produce 16 bacteria.
How long will it require 10 bacteria to grow into more than 100 bacteria if the doubling time is 30 min.?
If the doubling time is 30 min. It will take two hours for 10 bacteria to grow into more than 100 bacteria.
What does exponential growth mean?
Exponential growth means that in every generation or growth cycle twice as many cells are formed. This is in contrast to adding one individual each generation.
What is a normal growth curve for bacteria there are four phases.
Lag phase,log phase,stationary phase and decline phase.
Explain what bacteria are doing each of the four phases.
( Lag) cells adapt to nutrients, prepare for  cell division.(Log),cells double in regular intervals. (Stationary),cells maintain cell number but do not continue to grow (nutrient depleation). (Decline),cells begin to die (lack of energy/nutrients).
Define autolysis. Why may a bacterium autolyse?
Autolysis the breakdown of an organism because of it's own purpose and mechanism. Some bacteria auto lice in order to spread and enhance growth of survivors.
How can the number of viable cells in a culture be determined?
The number of viable cells in a culture can be determined by preforming dilutions at each time point, spreading aliquots on Petri dishes, and counting the number of colonies that grow.
What is the meaning of CFU?
CFU means "colony forming units".Each viable cell that can grow into a colony on a petri plate is a CFU.
What information does a turbidimetric assay yield?
A turbidimetric assay determines how many bacterial cells, living or dead, are present by use of the spectrophotometer . The number differs from CFU numbers, because CFU numbers only reflect viable cells.
Define Anabolism.
anabolism: the use of energy and building blocks to make new cellular material.
Define catabolism.
Catabolism: The breakdown of complex materials that cells use for making more cells.
Define Metabolism.
Metabolism: all the chemical processes occurring in a cell.
Define Enzymes.
Enzymes: protein catalysts that cells used to convert some molecules into others.
Sum enzyme reactions are controlled by(-)feedback.? happens when the product of a given reaction becomes< in concentration?
When the cell is in an environment with ample amino acids, the cell gets the signal to save energy and not to make its own amino acids.
What is the activation energy?
Activation energy refers to the amount of heat necessary to cause a chemical reaction. Enzymes can dramatically reduce the activation energy.
List of three major pathways of catabolism in organisms.
The three major pathways of catabolism in organisms glycolysis ,the Krebs cycle, and electron transport.
Name the starting compound of glycolysis.
The starting compound of glycolysis is glucose.
How many ATPs are produced by the following processes? Glycolysis and TCA/krebs cycle.
Glycolysis produces two ATP and TCA or Krebs cycle/electron transport produces 30 ATPs.
Name the final electronics acceptor in aerobic respiration.
The final electronics acceptor in aerobic respiration is oxygen.
Name two possible final electronics acceptors in anaerobic respiration.
Two possible final electronics acceptors in anaerobic respiration are nitrate in sulfate.
List six valuable products produced by fermentation.
Six commercially valuable products produced by fermentation are cheese, yogurt, vinegar, acetone, butyl alcohol, and beer and wine.
Name three types of macromolecules for which building blocks, or precursor molecules, are required.
RNA , DNA, and amino acids are three types of macromolecules that require building blocks, or precursor molecules.
What is transcription?
Transcription is the process by which RNA polymerase uses DNA template to produce mRNA.
What is a operon?
Operon is two or more jeans and a bacterial chromosome that are transcribed into one mRNA molecule. Eukaryotic cells do not have operons.
What is translation?
Translation is the process of RNAs translating the mRNA Condons into proteins by polymerizing the correct amino acids in the correct order.
What is the function of RNA polymerase.?
What is the function of RNA polymerase.
Transcription is the process by which RNA polymerase uses a DNA template to produce mRNA.
What is a operon?
A operon is two or more jeans in a bacterial chromosomes that are transcribed into one mRNA molecule. Eukaryotic cells do not have operons.
What is translation?
Translation is the process of our RNA translating the mRNA contents into proteins by polymerizing correct amino acids in the correct order.
What does RNA polymerase do?
RNA polymerase . Used to produce the RNA copies of each gene.
What is the function of  mRNA ?
A template for the coded genetic information in DNA to be translated into protein.
What is the function of Ribosomes?
Ribosomes are enzymes that carry out the process of translation.
What is the function of a codon?
A codon is a nucleotide triplet that codes for specific amino acid.
What is couple transcription and translation?
Couple transcription and translation is the simultaneous synthesis of RNA and protien that occurs in the cytoplasm of prokaryotes.
What does a triplet of bases encode?
Each triplet Condon in mRNA codes for one amino acid.
How did Griffith demonstrate gene transfer?
Griffith show that capsular production to be restored to a capsular mutant from dead, wild type bacteria.
How did Avery show that genes are made of DNA?
Avery showed that bacterial substance that caused transformation was DNase sensitive. This provided strong evidence that transferral DNA rather than proteins or RNA was necessary for capsule production
What did Hershey and Chase's experiment confirm?
Hershey and Chase confirmed that DNA, rather than protein, is the genetic material.
Define the term gene.
The DNA coding material for a single protein.
Define the term chromosome.
Chromosome: a large circular molecule of several million base pairs of DNA that contains cellular genes .
Define the term genome.
The collection of all genes  of a cell.
Define the term complementary DNA.
DNA that will base pair with another DNA molecule because it has a place of every T ,C in place of every G of the other molecule.
How many genes might there be in an average bacteria?
There are about 5000 genes  in a bacterium and about 50,000 genes in human cell.
What cells have diploid or haploid genomes?
Prokaryotic cells have haploid genomes; eukaryotic cells have diploid genomes.
What must happen to the genetic material when division of the cell occurs?
When division of the cell occurs the genome must be duplicated.
Where does DNA synthesis begin ?
DNA synthesis begins at the origin of replication.
What is produced by DNA replication?
DNA replication produces two double stranded DNA molecules identical to the starting DNA.
How does DNA proofread?
DNA proofreads, through DNA polymerase, which checks to see if the newly added nucleotide  are complementary to the template. If they are not complementary, DNA polymerase removes and replaces them with a new nucleotide.
Our human viruses harmful or beneficial?
Human viruses can be both harmful and beneficial.When a virus causes damage to the host, it is harmful. When a virus is used by gene therapy to repair human genetic defect, it is beneficial.
What is a viral vector?
A viral vector is a virus used in gene therapy to deliver a gene with proper activity to host cells that need the Gene.
How does DNA proofread?
DNA proofreads through DNA polymerase. Which checks to see if the newly added nucleotide are complementary to the template. If they're not complementary, DNA polymerase removes and replaces them with the new nucleotide .
Are human viruses harmful or beneficial?
Human viruses can be both harmful and beneficial.When a virus causes damage to the host, is harmful. What a virus is used by gene therapy to repair human genetic defect, it is beneficial.
What is a viral vector?
A viral vector is a virus used in gene therapy to deliver a gene with proper activity to host cells that need the gene.
when do bacteria normally regulate gene expression?
Bacteria usually regulate gene expression during transcription.
How is the lac operon induced?
Lactose combines with lac repressor to inactivate it. RNA polymerase can then bind to the promoter and transcribe the lac operon.
How is the tryptophan operon  repressed?
Tryptophan binds to the trp operon aporepressor to form an active complex, which binds to the trp operator and prevents RNA polymerase binding and transcription.
Describe feedback inhibition.
Feedback inhibition is associated with repressable operons where the end product of the operon pathway makes a complex with the oppressor to inhibit transcription.
Get two ways that induciable and repressable expression control differ.
Inductable
systems turn on expression while repressable  systems turn them off. Repressable systems have fine control over how much expression occurs.
What is the function of proteases?
Proteases rid the cell of unwanted cells.
List three things that can cause mutations.
Three things that can cause mutation are as follows: a mistake in the DNA dependent DNA polymerase; chemicals found in the environment; and ultraviolet rays from the sun and tanning lights.
What process causes spontaneous genetic change?
Mutation causes spontaneous genetic changes.
What is a heritable change in the base sequence of DNA called?
A heritable change in the base sequence of DNA is called a mutation.
Define the term nonsense mutation.
Nonsense mutation: gives rise to a stop codon in the middle of a gene so that translation stops before is complete.
Define the term frame shift deletion.
Frame shift deletion: indicates that nucleotides , perhaps one or two have been deleted from a gene so that the downstream codons are no longer in the register.
Give a example of phenotypic and Genotypic changes in the lac operon.
List three things that can cause mutation
Three things that can cause mutation are as follows: any mistake in the DNA dependent DNA polymerase; chemicals found in the environment; and ultraviolet rays from the sun and tanning lights.
What processes cause spontaneous genetic change?
Mutations causes spontaneous genetic changes.
What is the heritable change in the base sequence of DNA called?
Called a mutation.
Define nonsense mutation.
Nonsense mutation: gives rise to a stop codon in the middle of a gene so that translation stops before is complete.
Define frame shift deletion.
Frameshift deletion: indicates that nucleotides, perhaps one or two ( not three) have been deleted from the gene so that downstream codons are no longer in the register.
What is the most common gaseous sterilizing agent?
Ethylene oxide
Distinguish the survival abilities of intracellular and extracellular pathogens.
Intracellular pathogens cause infection because the microbes develop the ability to you to escape phagocytize cells. Extracellular pathogens cause infection by their ability to remain outside of the phagocyte cells.
Differentiate a virulence organism from a virulence factor.
A virulent organism is the one that causes a disease. Virulent factors are enzymes and toxins that allow a host to invade the host immune system.
Which line of defense provides specificity and long term immunity?
Acquired immunity provides specificity and long-term immunity.
Name five specific factors of the body's natural immunity that reduce infection and explain how they reduced infection.
Mucus, fluid flow ,G.I. tract bodily secretions,(contain lysozyme)iron binding  proteins prevent nutrition.
Where is lysozyme found and what does it do?
Lysozyme is found in all bodily secretions. It degrades bacterial walls.
How does complement kill microcrobes? C6c7c8c9
The complement proteins circulate around the body andbind to bacterial bound antibodies or to bacterial bound Polysaccharides to form the membrane attack compex which produces pores in the bacteria membrane allowing leakage and lysis.
What are the functions of C3a and C5a.
C3 and C5 are chemotactic factors that recruit phagocytize cells to the site of infection.
What is the function of polymorphonuclear leukocytes or neutrophils?
The function of PMNs or neutrophils is to engulf and digest foreign matter.
How abundant are PMNs ?
PMNSs Comprise 55% of all white blood cells.
What do PMNs and macrophages both have receptors for?
PMNs and macrophages both have receptors for IgG antibodies and the C3b component of complement.
List some things that inhibit phagocytes.
Low pH environments, poorly oxygenated tissue, and fluid filled spaces inhibit phagocytes.
What host response do basophils and mast cells stimulate?
Basophils and mast cells stimulate inflammation.
What agents to eosinophils help fight?
Eosinophils release toxins that fight organisms that are too large for phagocytes to ingest,such as worms .
What is an antigen?
And antigen is usually a protein or polysaccharide that is recognized by the body as foreign matter.
What is a epitope?
And epitope is a part of a Ag/antigen that actually binds to a Ab/antibody.
How much time is required to produce antibodies?
7 to 10 days are required to build antibodies.
What does a Th cell cause to happen to many immune cells?
B cells mature in the bone marrow, T cells in the thymus.
List three cell types that are required for an acquired immune response?
The three cell types required for an acquired immune response are (APC) the antigen presenting cells, the T-helper (Th) cell, and a B or T cell that is stimulated to proliferate.
What to cytokines are required for an acquired immune response, and what cells secrete them ?
The cytokines IL1 (interleukin 1) and IL2 (interleukin 2) are required for an acquired immune response. IL2 Is secreted by the APC (antigen presenting cell) and IL2 is secreted by the Th cell.
What cells are not stimulated when a T- independent antigen such as a polysaccharide is detected by the immune system?
Th cells are not stimulated when a T independent antigen such as a polysaccharide is detected by the immune system and thus no memory cells are formed.
What is the purpose of the plasma cell?
The purpose of the plasma cells to produce antibodies that recognize and bind to specific antigens.
What is active immunity?
Active immunity induces the immune system into a protective state by introducing a weekend or killed microbe before exposure to the virulent microbes occurs.
What is an antigen?
An antigen is usually a protein or polysaccharide that is recognized by the body as foreign matter.
What is an epitope?
An epitope is part of anitgen that actually binds to a Antibody.
What is the function of a B cell?
B cells produce antibodies.
What is the specialized, secreting  progeny cell called?
This specialized, secreting progeny cell is a plasma cell.
How much time is required to produce antibodies?
7 to 10 days are required to produce antibodies.
What does a Th cell cause to happen to many immune cells?
TheTh cell causes the proliferation of many immune cells.
What three cell types are required for an acquired immune response?
The three cell types required for an acquired immune response are the antigen presenting cells (APC) the T helper cells (TH)and B cells that is stimulated to proliferate.
What two cytokines are required for an acquired immune response, and what cells secrete them?
The cytokines IL1 and IL2 are required for an acquired immune response . IL1 is secreted by the APC , anne IL2 by the Th cell .
What cells are not stimulated when a T independent antigen (such as a polysaccharide ) is detected by the immune system?
The cells are not stimulated when a T independent antigen (such as a polysaccharide) are detected by the immune system and thus no memory cells are formed.
What is the purpose of a plasma cell?
The purpose of the plasma cell is to produce antibodies that recognize and bind to specific antigens.
How many Ag binding sites does IgG have?
Two
How many binding sites does IgM have?
Ten
How many binding sites does sIgA have?
Four
Which (Ab) antibody class has the longest half-life?
IgG has the longest half life : twenty one days.
Which antibody (Ab) class opsonize antigens(Ags)?
IgG and IgM opsonize Ags ( antigens )
How do antibodies fix complement?
(Abs) antibodies IgG and IgM fix complement; when they bind to a pathogen,a C3 binding site is exposed so that complement begins its Cascade of protein binding.
What does humoral immunity refer to?
We resist a second round of infection because in a second infection, the virons  are destroyed by the B cells and T cells to recognize the viruses before the disease becomes symptomatic.
Why is the delayed type hypersensitivity reaction hard to touch?
A delayed type hypersensitivity reaction is hard to the touch because it is tightly packed with immune cells.
Why do we resist a second round of infection with the three day measles virus?
We resist a second round of infection because in a second infection, the virons are destroyed by the B cells and T cells that recognize the viruses antigens before the disease becomes symptomatic.
Small antibodies and antigens can give rise to what type of diseases?
That can give rise to arthritis vasculitis, and glomerulonephritus.
What is a allergin?
An allergen is a substance that provokes an allergic response by inducing IgE production.
What does humoral immunity refer to?
Humoral immunity refers to antibodies.
Why is it delayed type hypersensitivity reaction hard to touch?
Because it is tightly packed with immune cells.
Define Burton's disease.
The patient makes no B cells.
Define DiGeorge syndrome.
T cells do not form due to a failed Thymus.
Severe combined immunodeficiency.
The stem cells in the bone marrow cannot produce D or T cells.
Acquired immunodeficiency
The virus kills the TH cells that control nearly all other immune responses.
List five autoimmune diseases.
Rheumatoid arthritis,Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus,Systemic lupus erythematosus,Multiple sclerosis and Myasthenia  gravis.
How is tuberculosis transmitted?
Tuberculosis is transmitted via respiratory droplets.
What does a positive mantoux or tine test indicate.
A positive mantoux or time test indicates TB infected the person at some time.
Described the pseudomembrane caused by diphtheria.
The pseudomembrane, which forms in the pharynx can cause asphyxiation. It should not be removed because of the risk of bleeding to death.
What is unusual about the morphology of bordetella pertussis?
Bordetella pertussis is a coccobacillus.
Who is most susceptible to pertussis?
Young children.
What color will viridans strep produce on blood agar?
Viridans strep will produce a greenest tinge on blood agar.
What particular disease does viridian's strep cause?
Viridans strep causes subacute endocarditis.
What chemical component of the cell wall is used to differentiate viridans strep?
C carbohydrate is used to differentiate streptococci.
What relation does the pneumococcal capsule ( strep. Pneumoniae )have to the following virulence of the bug.
Only encapsulated strains are virulent.
How many times can individual acquire pneumococcal pneumonia?
90 times because there are 90 servars.
What are the epidemiology and pathology of pneumococcus?
Pneumococcus is spread from human to human. Infections caused a pus like exudate fluid accumulation in the lungs. X-rays and rusty sputum help in diagnosis. Death by drowning occurs, since the lungs are filled with fluid.
How should infection with pneumococcus be prevented?
Infection with the pneumococcus can be prevented with the pneumovax vaccine but immunity lasts only five years .
List two unusual characteristics about mycoplasma cell envelopes.
Two unusual characteristics about mycoplasma cell envelopes are that cell has no cell wall or peptidoglycan layer and membranes that contains sterols.
Describe how to diagnose the disease caused by mycoplasma pneumonia.
The best diagnosis for mycoplasma pneumoniae is to observe increasing titers of cold arrlutations that cause RBC agglutination at refrigerator temperatures.
On what does legionella pneumophila usually feed on?
Amoebae
What is the most common cause of meningitis?
The most common cause of meningitis is Hemophilus influenzae.
How soon does treatment of meningococcal  meningitis need to start?
It needs to start immediately .
How are C pneumoniae cultured?
In the human cells , becausethey cannot produce their own ATP
What is the major site of infection for adenoviruses?
The upper respiratory tract
How many Adenoviral infections can individual experience?
At least  50
What are the two surface virulence proteins of the influenza virus?
Neuraminidase and hemaggluttin
What is the function of each neuraminidase and hemagglutinin?
Neuraminidase breaks down the protective mucous layer that lines the throat ... Hemagglutinin attaches to the ciliated epithelial cells in the throat so the virus can enter and kill the cells.
Define pandemic.
A mutational change in the hemagglutinin and neuraminidase genes.
Define Antigenic shift.
Antigenic shift; a complete hemagglutinin gene change.
What is the cause of death in those who have influenza?
Because of death and those who have influenza is secondary bacterial pneumonia.
How do amantadine , ribavirin and zanamivir function?
They inhibit uncoating and viral RNA replication.
To find the following parotitis .
Inflammation of the parotid or salivary glands caused by mumps virus.
Define Orchitis
Inflammation of the testes caused by mumps virus.
What two diseases are caused by Varcella zoster virus and how are they transmitted.
Chickenpox and shingles... chickenpox is transmitted via droplets from the respiratory tract. Shingles is latent and occurs when endogenous  viruses are reactivated.
Who is at risk for rubella virus?
A fetus especially during the first trimester.
What Are the two surface virulence proteins of the influenza virus
The two surface virulence protiens of the influenza virus are neurominidase and hemagglutinin.
List main area body Infected by the yeast filibasidiella neoformans
Infects the lungs and the membranes of the brain
List three dimorphic fungi with there sites of infection.
Histoplasmosis capsulatum lungs, thermal dermatitis , pulmonary infections and coccidioides immitis pulmonary and me uveal regions
What is thermal dimorphism.
Refers to  certin fungi that grow in cool  enviorments as molds, As temps rise to 37c they grow as yeasts .
How can aspergilus and the phycomycetes be distingished by looking at there hyphane?
Aspergillus produce septate hyphane while the phycomy produce aseptate hyphane.
What type of people are infected with pneumocystis  carinii?
Any person can be infected with pneumocystis
Who gets